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Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 of 06th November 2024. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.
1) What percentage of Indian stocks are exposed to foreign funds and unit trusts (UTs) that mutual funds (MFs) are permitted to invest in by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?
(a) 15%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
(e) 30%
2) The Franklin India Arbitrage Fund was introduced by Franklin Templeton (India) Mutual Fund. How much does a lump sum investment require, whereas a Systematic Investment Plan (SIP) only ₹500?
(a) Rs.2000
(b) Rs.1000
(c) Rs.3000
(d) Rs.4000
(e) Rs.5000
3) The Union Finance Ministry has requested that sponsor banks provide views on the planned RRB merger by November 20, 2024. The strategy, established in cooperation with NABARD, aims to reduce the number of RRBs from 43 to how many during Phase IV of amalgamation?
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28
(e) 29
4) In Which year had the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) goal of meeting cash demands following the demonetization of the ₹500 and ₹1000 notes been accomplished when it began to remove the ₹2000 banknotes on May 19, 2023?
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2013
(e) 2017
5) The SBI Mutual Fund (SBI MF) reached ₹10.99 lakh crore in the September quarter of 2024, it became the first fund firm in India to cross how many lakh crore in Assets Under Management (AUM)?
(a) ₹10 lakh crore
(b) ₹9 lakh crore
(c) ₹8 lakh crore
(d) ₹7 lakh crore
(e) ₹6 lakh crore
6) The Income Tax Act review meeting is chaired by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. How many specialist subcommittees have been established to assess various facets of the Income Tax Act, according to Revenue Secretary Malhotra?
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 20
(d) 23
(e) 25
7) To ease compliance obligations, market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has recommended increasing the threshold for identifying High Value Debt Listed Entities (HVDLEs) to Rs 1,000 crore from how many crore it is currently?
(a) Rs.200crore
(b) Rs.300crore
(c) Rs.400crore
(d) Rs.500crore
(e) Rs.600crore
8) The government has allocated ₹320 crore to promote electric mobility under the PM E-DRIVE Scheme. When will the PM E-DRIVE plan become effective?
(a) March 31, 2026
(b) May 31, 2026
(c) January 31, 2026
(d) April 30, 2026
(e) June 30, 2026
9) The Indian government emphasized that Wi-Fi services for internet access while in flight would only be permitted when the aircraft reaches a certain height of how many meters?
(a) 2000
(b) 1000
(c) 3000
(d) 2500
(e) 1500
10) How many new seed categories have been added to the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) with the goal of making it easier to get high-quality horticultural and agricultural seeds?
(a) 150
(b) 160
(c) 170
(d) 180
(e) 190
11) While regarding the possible risks to public health, the All India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists (AIOCD) voiced strong opposition to a partnership between Swiggy Instamart and PharmEasy for how many minute drug deliveries via dark stores?
(a) 10min
(b) 20min
(c) 15min
(d) 25min
(e) 30min
12) How many megawatts of solar power does Uttar Pradesh hope to produce by 2027 as part of its renewable energy portfolio expansion to lower carbon emissions and advance sustainable energy?
(a) 14,000 MW
(b) 13,000 MW
(c) 12,000 MW
(d) 11,000 MW
(e) 15,000 MW
13) To strengthen their efforts in the renewable energy industry, NTPC Green Energy Ltd. and ONGC Green Energy Ltd. formed a 50:50 Joint Venture Company (JVC). In order to increase its presence in the renewable energy market, the joint venture plans to buy renewable energy assets and participate in future offshore wind energy tenders in states like Tamil Nadu and also which state?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Odisha
(e) Bihar
14) Who was proposed by the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), which examines directors of state-owned banks and financial institutions, to be the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of IFCI Limited?
(a) Rahul Bhave
(b) Bhanu Pratap Sharma
(c) Animesh Chauhan
(d) Deepak Singhal
(e) Shailendra Bhandari
15) The International Solar Alliance (ISA) has re-elected India as its president for a two-year term ending in 2026, according to Minister of New and Renewable Energy Pralhad Joshi. Ashish Khanna has been appointed the ISA’s ________Director General.
(a) 2nd
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 5th
(e) 1st
16) Which Indian company appoints Itaru Otani as chairman to improve its market strategy?
(a) Honda Motors
(b) Bajaj Automobiles
(c) Yamaha Motor
(d) TVS Motor
(e) Mahindra Automobiles
17) Who has recently been given additional charge as Secretary of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)?
(a) Rajiv Gauba
(b) Arvind Kumar Sharma
(c) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
(d) Rajesh Verma
(e) Sanjay Malhotra
18) For the 15th iteration of the India-US joint Special Forces Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR, the Indian Army contingent depart. In Which state hosted the 14th edition, VAJRA PRAHAR 2023?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Mizoram
(c) Odisha
(d) West Bengal
(e) Maharashtra
19) Which iteration of the India-Indonesia Joint Special Forces Exercise GARUD SHAKTI 24 saw the 25-person Indian Army contingent travel to Cijantung, Jakarta, Indonesia?
(a) 9th
(b) 5th
(c) 6th
(d) 7th
(e) 8th
20) Which nation’s new flagship H3 rocket carried the Kirameki No. 3 defense satellite into orbit?
(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Indonesia
(e) France
Answers :
1) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has authorized mutual funds (MFs) to invest in foreign funds and unit trusts (UTs) that have up to 25% exposure to Indian equities.
This decision expands the investment options for domestic funds, particularly in prominent global schemes, including passive funds that provide diversified market exposure.
Detailed Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has authorized mutual funds (MFs) to invest in foreign funds and unit trusts (UTs) that have up to 25% exposure to Indian equities.
This decision expands the investment options for domestic funds, particularly in prominent global schemes, including passive funds that provide diversified market exposure.
Facilitating Investments: The initiative aims to streamline the process of investing in overseas MFs/UTs, enhance transparency, and allow MFs to diversify their international investments.
Exposure Monitoring: If an overseas MF/UT’s exposure to Indian equities exceeds the 25% threshold, a six-month observance period will be initiated for monitoring portfolio rebalancing. During this period, Indian MFs cannot make new investments in the breached fund.
Resumption of Investments: MFs may resume investments in the overseas MF/UT only when the exposure to Indian securities falls below the 25% limit.
2) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
Franklin Templeton (India) Mutual Fund has launched the Franklin India Arbitrage Fund.
Minimum Investment:The minimum investment for a lumpsum is ₹5,000, while for a Systematic Investment Plan (SIP), it is ₹500.
Fund Management:The scheme will be managed by Rajasa K, Yogik Pitti, and Pallab Roy.
Detailed Explanation:
Franklin Templeton (India) Mutual Fund has launched the Franklin India Arbitrage Fund.
It is an arbitrage-focused, open-ended hybrid scheme that seeks to capitalize on arbitrage opportunities in the cash and derivatives segments of the equity market.
NFO Details:The New Fund Offer (NFO) period closes on November 18 and will reopen for continuous sale and repurchase on November 21.
The fund is expected to allocate a minimum of 65% of its investments to equity and equity-related securities, and up to 35% in debt, money market instruments, and cash equivalents.
Benchmark:The fund will be benchmarked against the Nifty 50 Arbitrage Index.
Minimum Investment:The minimum investment for a lumpsum is ₹5,000, while for a Systematic Investment Plan (SIP), it is ₹500.
Exit Load:An exit load of 0.25% will apply if units are redeemed or switched out within 30 days from the date of allotment; the exit load will be nil thereafter.
Fund Management:The scheme will be managed by Rajasa K, Yogik Pitti, and Pallab Roy.
3) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The Union Finance Ministry has asked sponsor banks to submit comments on the proposed RRB amalgamation by November 20, 2024.
Objective:The amalgamation aims to achieve ‘One State-One RRB’ to enhance scale efficiency and cost rationalization.
Amalgamation Roadmap:The roadmap, developed in consultation with NABARD, targets reducing the number of RRBs from 43 to 28 under Phase IV of amalgamation.
Detailed Explanation:
The Union Finance Ministry has asked sponsor banks to submit comments on the proposed RRB amalgamation by November 20, 2024.
Transferee RRB Selection:The RRB with the largest business volume (total deposits and advances) among those amalgamating in a state will be designated as the transferee RRB.
The sponsor bank of this transferee RRB will be the one with the largest business volume and branch network.
Naming Convention: A common syntax will be used for naming the newly amalgamated RRBs.
Objective:The amalgamation aims to achieve ‘One State-One RRB’ to enhance scale efficiency and cost rationalization.
Amalgamation Roadmap:The roadmap, developed in consultation with NABARD, targets reducing the number of RRBs from 43 to 28 under Phase IV of amalgamation.
4) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) initiated the withdrawal of ₹2000 banknotes on May 19, 2023, citing that their objective of fulfilling currency needs post the demonetization of ₹500 and ₹1000 notes in 2016 had been achieved.
Current Circulation: As of October 31, 2024, only 2% of the original ₹2000 notes remain in circulation, equating to ₹6,970 crore, down from ₹3.56 lakh crore on May 19, 2023.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) initiated the withdrawal of ₹2000 banknotes on May 19, 2023, citing that their objective of fulfilling currency needs post the demonetization of ₹500 and ₹1000 notes in 2016 had been achieved.
Current Circulation: As of October 31, 2024, only 2% of the original ₹2000 notes remain in circulation, equating to ₹6,970 crore, down from ₹3.56 lakh crore on May 19, 2023.
Return Rate: Approximately 98.04% of the ₹2000 banknotes in circulation as of May 19, 2023, have been returned to the RBI.
Legal Tender Status: The remaining ₹2000 banknotes still in circulation continue to hold legal tender status, allowing them to be used for transactions.
Exchange Facilities: The RBI has facilitated the exchange of ₹2000 banknotes at its 19 Issue Offices since May 19, 2023.
Deposit Options: Since October 09, 2023, individuals and entities can deposit ₹2000 notes into their bank accounts at RBI Issue Offices, and they can also send these notes through India Post for credit to their accounts.
5) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
SBI Mutual Fund (SBI MF) became the first fund house in India to surpass ₹10 lakh crore in Assets Under Management (AUM), reaching ₹10.99 lakh crore in the September quarter of 2024.
Growth Comparison:SBI MF saw an 11% growth in AUM from ₹9.88 lakh crore in the June quarter.
Detailed Explanation:
SBI Mutual Fund (SBI MF) became the first fund house in India to surpass ₹10 lakh crore in Assets Under Management (AUM), reaching ₹10.99 lakh crore in the September quarter of 2024.
Growth Comparison:SBI MF saw an 11% growth in AUM from ₹9.88 lakh crore in the June quarter.
Comparison with Competitors: SBI MF’s AUM is significantly higher than that of its competitors:
ICICI Mutual Fund: ₹8.41 lakh crore
HDFC Mutual Fund: ₹7.59 lakh crore
SBI MF’s AUM is 30% higher than ICICI MF and 45% higher than HDFC MF.
Growth Rate: SBI MF’s AUM grew by 11% from ₹9.88 lakh crore in the June quarter to ₹10.99 lakh crore in the September quarter.
New Fund Launch: The SBI Innovative Opportunities Fund, launched in August 2024, has an AUM of ₹8,174 crore.
6) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman chaired a meeting on November 4, 2024 to conduct a comprehensive review of the Income Tax Act 1961, in line with the announcement made during the last Union Budget.
The meeting included key officials from the finance ministry, such as Revenue Secretary Sanjay Malhotra and Ravi Agarwal, Chairman of the Income Tax Department.
Sub-Committees Formation: Revenue Secretary Malhotra reported that 22 specialized sub-committees have been created to evaluate different aspects of the Income Tax Act.
Detailed Explanation:
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman chaired a meeting on November 4, 2024 to conduct a comprehensive review of the Income Tax Act 1961, in line with the announcement made during the last Union Budget.
The meeting included key officials from the finance ministry, such as Revenue Secretary Sanjay Malhotra and Ravi Agarwal, Chairman of the Income Tax Department.
Sub-Committees Formation: Revenue Secretary Malhotra reported that 22 specialized sub-committees have been created to evaluate different aspects of the Income Tax Act.
Engagement with Experts: These committees have conducted numerous meetings with domain experts to propose enhancements to the Act.
Public Participation: Since the opening of a suggestion portal on October 6, 2024, the ministry has received around 6,500 suggestions from the public, indicating active involvement in the simplification of the Act.
Union Budget Announcement: The review of the Income Tax Act was announced during the Union Budget for 2024-25 presented on July 23, 2024, focusing on the need for simplification.
Review Committee: The review is being overseen by a committee led by Chief Commissioner of Income Tax VK Gupta, with an expectation to submit its report by October 2024.
7) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
Markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed raising the threshold for identifying High Value Debt Listed Entities (HVDLEs) to Rs 1,000 crore from Rs 500 crore at present to reduce compliance burdens.
Currently, an entity having outstanding value of listed non-convertible debt securities of Rs 500 crore and above are referred to as ‘High Value Debt Listed Entities’.
Detailed Explanation:
Markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed raising the threshold for identifying High Value Debt Listed Entities (HVDLEs) to Rs 1,000 crore from Rs 500 crore at present to reduce compliance burdens.
Currently, an entity having outstanding value of listed non-convertible debt securities of Rs 500 crore and above are referred to as ‘High Value Debt Listed Entities’.
Sunset Clause : Sebi has proposed introducing a sunset clause that would end governance obligations if an HVDLE’s outstanding debt falls below the threshold for a specified period, providing more flexibility.
Governance Reports : Also, it has been proposed filing of governance reports in XBRL format, voluntary Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR), and harmonise HVDLE reporting with equity-listed entities.
Relaxation for Non-Companies : Further, SEBI has proposed relaxation for HVDLEs which are not companies as per the Companies Act, 2013, relaxation with regard to the constitution of the Nomination and Remuneration Committee (NRC), Risk Management Committee (RMC) and Stakeholders Relationship Committee (SRC).
8) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
The Prime Minister Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE) scheme, launched on October 1, 2024, aims to accelerate the adoption of electric two-wheelers (e2W) and three-wheelers (e3W).
A total of ₹320 crore has been disbursed out of ₹514 crore in subsidy claims submitted as of October, while ₹147 crore in claims are under review.
The PM E-DRIVE scheme will be effective through March 31, 2026 and covers a wide range of electric vehicles including e-ambulances, e-trucks, and e-buses as well as charging infrastructure upgrades.
Detailed Explanation:
The Prime Minister Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE) scheme, launched on October 1, 2024, aims to accelerate the adoption of electric two-wheelers (e2W) and three-wheelers (e3W).
With a total budget of ₹10,900 crore over two years, the scheme intends to subsidize 11,87,917 EVs in the first year alone.
As of October 28, 2024, the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) reports:
52% of e2Ws sold, reaching 5,49,698 units, with subsidy claims submitted for 3,28,524 units.
73% of e3W (L5 category) sold, with 58,640 units delivered and 40,075 claims submitted.
6,09,250 vehicles sold in total, with subsidy claims for 3,69,357 EVs (51%) submitted.
A total of ₹320 crore has been disbursed out of ₹514 crore in subsidy claims submitted as of October, while ₹147 crore in claims are under review.
The PM E-DRIVE scheme will be effective through March 31, 2026 and covers a wide range of electric vehicles including e-ambulances, e-trucks, and e-buses as well as charging infrastructure upgrades.
9) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Government of India clarified that Wi-Fi services for in-flight internet access will be allowed only once the aircraft reaches 3,000 meters in altitude.
The new guideline is part of the recently updated Flight and Maritime Connectivity (Amendment) Rules, 2024, which amend the previous rules from 2018.
Detailed Explanation:
The Government of India clarified that Wi-Fi services for in-flight internet access will be allowed only once the aircraft reaches 3,000 meters in altitude.
The new guideline is part of the recently updated Flight and Maritime Connectivity (Amendment) Rules, 2024, which amend the previous rules from 2018.
Wi-Fi services will be accessible when electronic devices (such as smartphones, tablets, and laptops) are permitted onboard.
The use of these devices, however, is restricted during critical flight phases like takeoff and landing to maintain safety.
This update specifies that Wi-Fi can be used once electronic devices are cleared for operation at 3,000 meters, in line with existing protocols for electronic device usage on flights.
The 2018 rules required mobile communication services in aircraft to operate only above 3,000 meters to prevent interference with terrestrial networks.
10) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has introduced 170 new seed categories aimed at simplifying access to quality agricultural and horticultural seeds.
Detailed Explanation:
The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has introduced 170 new seed categories aimed at simplifying access to quality agricultural and horticultural seeds.
This initiative comes just in time for the upcoming cropping season.
Nearly 8,000 seed varieties are now available for procurement by Central and State Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and other governing bodies. This move facilitates the efficient distribution of quality seeds nationwide.
The new categories were developed in collaboration with stakeholders, including state seed corporations and research organizations, ensuring they align with the Government of India’s rules and regulations.
11) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
The All India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists (AIOCD) raised serious objections to a collaboration between Swiggy Instamart and PharmEasy for 10-minute medicine deliveries via dark stores, citing potential public health risks.
Detailed Explanation:
The All India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists (AIOCD) raised serious objections to a collaboration between Swiggy Instamart and PharmEasy for 10-minute medicine deliveries via dark stores, citing potential public health risks.
AIOCD argued that the ultra-fast delivery approach might compromise essential safety protocols like prescription verification and patient identification, which are vital to prevent misuse and ensure accurate medication dispensation.
The AIOCD underscored that unregulated e-pharmacy operations could aggravate antimicrobial resistance (AMR) in India, a significant public health issue. This concern aligns with government efforts to curb AMR, which unchecked antibiotic sales could compromise in a high-speed delivery model.
There are also concerns over medicine quality under a rapid delivery system, as the AIOCD noted that ensuring high standards within a 10-minute timeframe could be challenging. This raises the risk of patients receiving expired or counterfeit medicines.
12) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh aims to generate 14,000 MW of solar power by 2027, expanding its renewable energy portfolio to reduce carbon emissions and promote sustainable energy.
Detailed Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh aims to generate 14,000 MW of solar power by 2027, expanding its renewable energy portfolio to reduce carbon emissions and promote sustainable energy.
Under the PM Surya Ghar Yojana, Uttar Pradesh plans to connect 2.5 million households to solar energy, making solar power accessible and reducing dependence on conventional electricity.
Uttar Pradesh has received investment proposals totaling Rs 7 trillion for renewable energy projects, with Rs 57,000 crore under the UP State Bio-Energy Policy 2022.
The PM-KUSUM Yojana targets 2,000 MW of solar power by 2027 by installing solar panels on vacant rural land. This project has already equipped 48,000 houses with solar power, and another 30,000 homes are expected to follow by the end of FY 2024-25.
13) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
NTPC Green Energy Ltd. and ONGC Green Energy Ltd. have established a 50:50 Joint Venture Company (JVC) to enhance their efforts in the renewable energy sector.
This partnership was formalized on February 7, 2024, during the India Energy Week 2024.
The joint venture aims to acquire renewable energy assets and engage in upcoming offshore wind energy tenders in states such as Tamil Nadu and Gujarat, expanding their footprint in the renewable energy landscape.
Detailed Explanation:
NTPC Green Energy Ltd. and ONGC Green Energy Ltd. have established a 50:50 Joint Venture Company (JVC) to enhance their efforts in the renewable energy sector.
This partnership was formalized on February 7, 2024, during the India Energy Week 2024.
The JVC will concentrate on a diverse range of renewable and new energy initiatives, including:
Solar and Wind Energy: Both onshore and offshore projects.
Energy Storage: Development of pumped storage and battery storage systems.
Green Molecules: Production of green hydrogen, green ammonia, sustainable aviation fuel (SAF), and green methanol.
E-Mobility: Exploration of electric mobility solutions.
Carbon and Green Credits: Participation in carbon credit and green credit schemes.
The joint venture aims to acquire renewable energy assets and engage in upcoming offshore wind energy tenders in states such as Tamil Nadu and Gujarat, expanding their footprint in the renewable energy landscape.
14) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
The Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), the headhunter for directors of state-owned banks and financial institutions, recommended Rahul Bhave for the position of Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of IFCI Limited.
Detailed Explanation:
The Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), the headhunter for directors of state-owned banks and financial institutions, recommended Rahul Bhave for the position of Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of IFCI Limited.
Bhave is currently the Deputy Managing Director of IFCI.
Besides, FSIB has recommended Palash Srivastava for the position of Deputy Managing Director in IIFCL.
Srivastava is currently the Chief Executive Officer of IIFCL Projects Limited, a subsidiary of IIFCL.
FSIB is led by Bhanu Pratap Sharma, former Secretary, Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
15) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The Minister of New & Renewable Energy Pralhad Joshi announced that India has been re-elected as the President of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) for two years till 2026.
Director General Appointment: Ashish Khanna has been designated as the third Director General of the ISA and will take office in March 2025.
Detailed Explanation:
The Minister of New & Renewable Energy Pralhad Joshi announced that India has been re-elected as the President of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) for two years till 2026.
Besides, France also retained the post of Vice-President of the global body promoting renewable energy in least developed countries.
Vice Presidents: Eight Vice Presidents from various regions were selected:
Africa Region: Ghana and Seychelles as Vice Presidents; South Sudan and Comoros as Vice-Chairs.
Asia and the Pacific: Australia and Sri Lanka as Vice Presidents; United Arab Emirates and Papua New Guinea as Vice-Chairs.
Europe and Others: Germany and Italy as Vice Presidents; Greece and Norway as Vice-Chairs.
Latin America and Caribbean: Grenada and Suriname as Vice Presidents; Jamaica and Haiti as Vice-Chairs.
Director General Appointment: Ashish Khanna has been designated as the third Director General of the ISA and will take office in March 2025.
16) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
India Yamaha Motor has appointed Itaru Otani as its new Chairman.
In his new role, Otani plans to address changing consumer preferences by emphasizing the development of innovative two-wheelers specifically designed for the Indian market.
Detailed Explanation:
India Yamaha Motor has appointed Itaru Otani as its new Chairman.
In his new role, Otani plans to address changing consumer preferences by emphasizing the development of innovative two-wheelers specifically designed for the Indian market.
Otani has over 30 years of experience with Yamaha Motor Company, having held significant leadership positions in various global markets, including Australia, Brazil, and Japan.
Prior to becoming Chairman, Otani served as Chief General Manager, overseeing the Land Mobility Business Operations based in Japan.
Yamaha Motor India is a subsidiary of Yamaha Motor Company and has established itself as a key player in India’s two-wheeler market, providing motorcycles and scooters that meet consumer demands for reliability, fuel efficiency, and appealing design.
17) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Senior IAS Officer Tuhin Kanta Pandey has received additional charge as Secretary of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
Tuhin Kanta Pandey is a senior IAS Officer from the Orissa cadre 1987 batch.
He is currently serving as the Secretary of the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management in the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
Detailed Explanation:
Senior IAS Officer Tuhin Kanta Pandey has received additional charge as Secretary of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
Tuhin Kanta Pandey is a senior IAS Officer from the Orissa cadre 1987 batch.
He is currently serving as the Secretary of the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management in the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
He will hold the additional charge of Secretary DoPT till the appointment of a regular incumbent or until further orders.
Earlier, senior IAS Officer Vivek Joshi was holding the post of Secretary, Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
Vivek Joshi has been sent back to his cadre state Haryana. He is a 1989 batch IAS officer.
18) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
The Indian Army contingent departed for the 15th edition of India- US joint Special Forces Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR.
The 14th edition, VAJRA PRAHAR 2023, was held in December 2023 at the Joint Training Node, Umroi, Meghalaya.
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Army contingent departed for the 15th edition of India- US joint Special Forces Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR.
The exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 2nd to 22nd November 2024 at Orchard Combat Training Centre in Idaho, United States of America (USA).
The first edition of VAJRA PRAHAR was conducted in 2010.
The 14th edition, VAJRA PRAHAR 2023, was held in December 2023 at the Joint Training Node, Umroi, Meghalaya.
This will be the second exercise of the year between Indian and the US Army, the previous being Exercise YUDH ABHYAS 2024, conducted at Rajasthan in September 2024.
Participation : Contingents of both the countries taking part in the joint exercise will comprise 45 personnel each.
19) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
The Indian Army contingent comprising 25 personnel departed for Cijantung, Jakarta, Indonesia to take part in the 9th edition of India-Indonesia Joint Special Forces Exercise GARUD SHAKTI 24.
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Army contingent comprising 25 personnel departed for Cijantung, Jakarta, Indonesia to take part in the 9th edition of India-Indonesia Joint Special Forces Exercise GARUD SHAKTI 24.
The Exercise will be conducted from 1st to 12th of November 2024.
The Indian contingent is being represented by troops from The Parachute Regiment (Special Forces) and an Indonesian contingent comprising 40 personnel is being represented by Indonesian Special Forces Kopassus.
The aim of Exercise GARUD SHAKTI 24 is to acquaint both the sides with each other’s operating procedures, enhance mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the Special Forces of both armies.
20) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Japan launched a defence satellite named Kirameki No. 3 aboard its new flagship H3 rocket.
The launch took place from the Tanegashima Space Centre, located on a southwestern island of Japan.
The H3 rocket successfully placed the satellite into its targeted orbit.
Detailed Explanation:
Japan launched a defence satellite named Kirameki No. 3 aboard its new flagship H3 rocket.
The launch took place from the Tanegashima Space Centre, located on a southwestern island of Japan.
The H3 rocket successfully placed the satellite into its targeted orbit.
Satellite Functionality:Kirameki No. 3 is equipped with X-band communication technology, designed to enhance military operations and information sharing.
X-band satellites are less susceptible to weather interference, ensuring stable communication.
This satellite joins two earlier X-band satellites, Kirameki No. 1 and No. 2, already operational to meet Japan’s increasing communication needs.
Military and Strategic Implications:The new satellite system aims to improve high-speed, large-capacity data transmission among Japan’s Ground, Maritime, and Air Self Defence Forces.