Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 11th & 12th August 2024

Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 of 11th & 12th August 2024. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) The Reserve Bank of India proposes a public repository for digital lending apps to combat unauthorized users. Previously, in ______________, the RBI issued rules on digital lending.

(a) November 2022

(b) October 2022

(c) December 2022

(d) September 2022

(e) May 2022


2)
The Reserve Bank of India has released draft guidelines to streamline the onboarding and monitoring of Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS) operators in order to combat fraud. How many key elements make up KYC (Know Your Customer)?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

(e) 6


3)
The Reserve Bank of India has released Master Directions for Non-Bank Payment System Operators on Cyber Resilience and Digital Payment Security Controls. Out of the following statements, which one is false?

(a) Large Non-Bank PSO – Must comply by April 1, 2025.

(b) Medium Non-Bank PSO -Must comply by April 1, 2026.

(c) Small Non-Bank PSO – Must comply by April 1, 2027.

(d) Only A&C correct

(e) All the above are correct


4)
For digital payments, the Reserve Bank of India recommends using software tokens, biometrics, and PINs as alternative authentication methods. The Point of Sale (PoS) terminals allow contactless small-value card-present transactions up to what amount of rupees?

(a) Rs.5000

(b) Rs.1000

(c) Rs.10000

(d) Rs.15000

(e) Rs.20000


5)
The Reserve Bank of India Offers Policies for Model Risk Management in Credit Regulation. The comprehensive instructions that the central bank established will be implemented in __________ months.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 6


6)
The Reserve Bank of India Monetary Policy Committee has proposed a new procedure to expedite the clearance of checks in a matter of hours. Instruments that comply with CTS_____________ requirements are the only ones that may be submitted for CTS clearance.

(a) 2007

(b) 2008

(c) 2010

(d) 2011

(e) 2012


7) According to the report, the
Bank lockers offer a safe place to keep priceless goods, but only certain things are allowed to be kept inside. Out of all the statements, which one is false?

(a) The revised guidelines specify that cash and currency are not permitted in bank lockers.

(b) Additionally, you cannot store arms, weapons, drugs, explosives, or contraband items.

(c) The lockers are also not suitable for perishable goods, radioactive materials, illegal substances, or hazardous materials.

(d) The bank will not allow the nominees to operate.

(e) NRIs: Eligible if they have existing lockers at Indian banks.


8)
In FY 2023–24, public sector banks paid out more than three times as much to compensate for frauds, including electronic frauds, totalling Rs 140 crore. Which bank came in first place?

(a) Canara bank

(b) Union Bank of India

(c) Bank of India

(d) Central Bank of India

(e) Indian Bank


9) As per the report,
“DBS Golden Circle,” a premium banking program for senior citizens, is launched by DBS Bank India. What percentage of savings account balances between INR 4 lakhs and INR 5 lakhs may senior persons earn annually?

(a) 7.5%

(b) 7.9%

(c) 7.0%

(d) 7.2%

(e) 8.5%


10)
Shri Piyush Goyal introduced the Diamond Imprest Licence at an interactive session during which edition of the India International Jewellery Show (IIJS) 2024?

(a) 30th

(b) 35th

(c) 40th

(d) 45th

(e) 42nd


11)
Union Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw introduces the Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024. The Railway Board Act of ____________ established a separate railway body independent of the Public Works Department.

(a) 1902

(b) 1901

(c) 1905

(d) 1907

(e) 1909


12)
According to Sr. No. 8 of Schedule IA of the Citizenship Rules, 2024, which outlines the documentation applicants can use to verify their citizenship status from how many countries, the Home Ministry clarifies the document requirements for the Citizenship Amendment Rules?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5


13) As per the report, the 
PMAY-U-2 and PMAY-G Extension for Enhanced Housing are approved by the Union Cabinet. How much money would be allotted under PMAY-U-2 in total lakh crore?

(a) Rs.2.50lakh crore

(b) Rs.2.40lakh crore

(c) Rs.2.30lakh crore

(d) Rs.2.20lakh crore

(e) Rs.2.10lakh crore


14)
Under the direction of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has authorized ________ railway projects, with an estimated cost of Rs 24,657 crore.

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 8

(e) 9


15)
Which nation’s Munal satellite was created with assistance from the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of India and NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of ISRO?

(a) Bhutan

(b) Myanmar

(c) Nepal

(d) Bangladesh

(e) Srilanka


16)
Which company signs an MOU with RRVUNL to investigate a joint venture for renewable energy projects and gas-based power plants?

(a) BPCL

(b) BHEL

(c) GAIL

(d) ONGC

(e) IOL


17) Senior bureaucrat T V Somanathan was named India’s cabinet secretary by the Union Cabinet Appointments Committee. For how many years will he hold this position?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5


18)
At the Olympics in Paris, Indian wrestler Aman Sehrawat demonstrated his promise by winning the bronze medal in the men’s __________kg freestyle division.

(a) 55

(b) 57

(c) 59

(d) 53

(e) 51


19)
Which nation’s Karlos Nasar, who won the men’s 89kg Olympic weightlifting gold at the Paris Games, thrilled the Paris Expo with a performance that broke world records?

(a) UAE

(b) Bulgaria

(c) Netherland

(d) South Korea

(e) China


20)
Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone broke her own world record in the 400-meter hurdles, securing her position as the dominant athlete with a time of ________ seconds.

(a) 50.32

(b) 50.33

(c) 50.35

(d) 50.37

(e) 50.39


21)
K Natwar Singh, a former External Affairs Minister and Padma Vibhushan recipient, passed away. Which state does he belong?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Karnataka

(d) Kerala

(e) Haryana


22)
In which year was the first World Elephant Day celebrated on August 12th?

(a) 2011

(b) 2012

(c) 2013

(d) 2014

(e) 2015


23)
Which year marked the inaugural International Youth Day on August 12th?

(a) 2001

(b) 2000

(c) 2002

(d) 2005

(e) 2007


24)
The Cheque Truncation System is a procedure that stops the flow of physical checks issued by a drawer on their route to the paying bank branch.How many images of each cheque are captured using CTS?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5


25)
At the Paris 2024 Olympics, India won the bronze medal in men’s field hockey, their second straight Olympic bronze. Currently, India’s field hockey squad has ___ Olympic medals.

(a) 11

(b) 12

(c) 10

(d) 9

(e) 15


Answers :

1) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed to create a public repository of digital lending apps (DLAs) in a bid to address the problems arising from mushrooming unauthorised players in the segment.

Guidelines Issued in September 2022 : In September 2022, the RBI came out with guidelines on digital lending aimed at protecting customers from unethical business practices, such as mis-selling, breach of data privacy, unfair business conduct, charging of exorbitant interest rates, adopted by digital lenders.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed to create a public repository of digital lending apps (DLAs) in a bid to address the problems arising from mushrooming unauthorised players in the segment.

Aim : To help customers verify the legitimacy of DLAs and their association with Regulated Entities (REs)

Data Submission and Updates : The repository will be based on data submitted by the REs (without any intervention by RBI) directly to the repository and will get updated as and when the REs report the details, i.e., addition of new DLAs or deletion of any existing DLA.

Identification of Legal vs. Illegal Apps : The repository will enable borrowers to identify whether the lending app is illegal or legal.

Guidelines Issued in September 2022 : In September 2022, the RBI came out with guidelines on digital lending aimed at protecting customers from unethical business practices, such as mis-selling, breach of data privacy, unfair business conduct, charging of exorbitant interest rates, adopted by digital lenders.


2) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released draft guidelines for streamlining the onboarding and monitoring of Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS) operators to counter frauds perpetuated through the ecosystem.

The three key components of KYC (Know Your Customer) are:

Customer Identification: Verifying the identity of the customer through documents such as passports, driver’s licenses, and utility bills.

Customer Due Diligence (CDD): Assessing the customer’s risk profile by gathering and evaluating information on their financial background and business activities.

Ongoing Monitoring: Continuously monitoring customer transactions and activities to detect and prevent suspicious behavior or financial crimes.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released draft guidelines for streamlining the onboarding and monitoring of Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS) operators to counter frauds perpetuated through the ecosystem.

Compliance Timeline : Banks and the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) are required to comply with these directions within three months from the date of issue of the guidelines.

Due Diligence Requirements : Acquiring banks, which onboard AePS touchpoint operators, will be required to carry out due diligence in the form of Know Your Customer (KYC) guidelines for all the operators they take onboard.

These banks will be required to update the KYC of the operators if they have not performed a single financial transaction for a continuous period of 6 months.

According to the RBI, Banks and NPCI shall ensure compliance to these directions within three months from the date of issue.

The three key components of KYC (Know Your Customer) are:

Customer Identification: Verifying the identity of the customer through documents such as passports, driver’s licenses, and utility bills.

Customer Due Diligence (CDD): Assessing the customer’s risk profile by gathering and evaluating information on their financial background and business activities.

Ongoing Monitoring: Continuously monitoring customer transactions and activities to detect and prevent suspicious behavior or financial crimes.


3) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released Master Directions on ‘Cyber Resilience and Digital Payment Security Controls’ for non-bank payment system operators (PSOs).

Large Non-Bank PSOs: Must comply by April 1, 2025.

Medium Non-Bank PSOs: Must comply by April 1, 2026.

Small Non-Bank PSOs: Must comply by April 1, 2027.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released Master Directions on ‘Cyber Resilience and Digital Payment Security Controls’ for non-bank payment system operators (PSOs).

The provisions of these Directions shall apply to all authorised non-bank PSOs.

The master circular, issued on ‘cyber resilience and digital payment security controls,’ stipulates a compliance structure and sets different timelines for PSOs based on size.

Compliance Timelines:

Large Non-Bank PSOs: Must comply by April 1, 2025.

Medium Non-Bank PSOs: Must comply by April 1, 2026.

Small Non-Bank PSOs: Must comply by April 1, 2027.

PSOs must also report cybersecurity incidents to CERT-In (Computer Emergency Response Team – India).


4) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed alternate methods of additional factor authentication (AFA) for digital payments including password, PIN, software tokens and biometrics like fingerprints.

Exemptions from AFA: Small value card-present transactions up to ₹5,000 in contactless mode at Point of Sale (PoS) terminals.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed alternate methods of additional factor authentication (AFA) for digital payments including password, PIN, software tokens and biometrics like fingerprints.

Traditionally, SMS-based OTP (One-Time Password) has been the primary method for AFA.

As per the draft, “Factor of Authentication: Any credential input by the customer which is verified for the purpose of confirming the originator of a payment instruction.

Compliance Timeline : All Payment System Providers and Payment System Participants (banks and non-banks) shall ensure compliance with this framework within three months from the date of issue of these directions.

Legal Basis: These directions are issued under Section 18 read with Section 10(2) of the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007 (Act 51 of 2007).

Exemptions from AFA: Small value card-present transactions up to ₹5,000 in contactless mode at Point of Sale (PoS) terminals.


5) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed to lay down principles for management of model risks in credit for banks and other regulated entities with a view to ensuring prudence and robustness.

Implementation Timeline : The central bank laid down detailed guidelines on it which will come into force in three months.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed to lay down principles for management of model risks in credit for banks and other regulated entities with a view to ensuring prudence and robustness.

Implementation Timeline : The central bank laid down detailed guidelines on it which will come into force in three months.

The lenders already using credit models need to align those with the guidelines within six months from now.

Legal and Regulatory Basis : The  guidelines have been issued under Sections 21, 35A and 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, Sections 45JA, 45L and 45M of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and Sections 30A, 32 and 33 of the National Housing Bank Act, 1987.

Applicability :The above guidelines are applicable on All Commercial Banks (including Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks), All Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks, All State Cooperative Banks & Central Cooperative Banks, All Non-Banking Financial Companies (including Housing Finance Companies), All All-India Financial Institutions.


6) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed clearing cheques in just a few hours, broadening efforts to improve customer service at banks.

CTS-2010 Standards :Only CTS-2010 standards compliant instruments can be presented for clearing through CTS.

Detailed Explanation:

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed clearing cheques in just a few hours, broadening efforts to improve customer service at banks.

Cheques will be scanned, presented, and passed in a few hours and on a continuous basis during business hours.

Currently, Cheque Truncation System (CTS) processes cheques with a clearing cycle of up to two working days.

Cheque Truncation System is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque issued by a drawer at some point by the presenting bank en route to the paying bank branch.

CTS-2010 Standards :Only CTS-2010 standards compliant instruments can be presented for clearing through CTS.

CTS Implementation Locations : CTS has been implemented in New Delhi, Chennai, and Mumbai with effect from February 1, 2008, September 24, 2011, and April 27, 2013 respectively.

Cheque Imaging : There are three images of each cheque that are taken in CTS – front Gray Scale, front Black and White and back Black and White.


7) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Bank lockers provide a secure way to store valuable items, but there are specific guidelines on what can and cannot be kept inside them.

Permitted Items : Under the updated bank locker agreement, you are allowed to store valuable items such as jewellery, important documents, property papers, birth or marriage certificates, insurance policies, savings bonds, and other confidential materials in bank lockers.

Detailed Explanation:

Bank lockers provide a secure way to store valuable items, but there are specific guidelines on what can and cannot be kept inside them.

Permitted Items : Under the updated bank locker agreement, you are allowed to store valuable items such as jewellery, important documents, property papers, birth or marriage certificates, insurance policies, savings bonds, and other confidential materials in bank lockers.

Prohibited Items : The revised guidelines specify that cash and currency are not permitted in bank lockers.

Additionally, you cannot store arms, weapons, drugs, explosives, or contraband items.

The lockers are also not suitable for perishable goods, radioactive materials, illegal substances, or hazardous materials.

Eligibility for Locker :

Individuals: Can open lockers singly or jointly.

Entities: Limited companies, firms, and trusts.

NRIs: Eligible if they have existing lockers at Indian banks.


8) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Public sector banks’ compensation for frauds and electronic frauds increased over three-fold to Rs 140 crore in FY 2023-24, compared to Rs 42.70 crore in the previous fiscal year.

Top Compensators:

Union Bank of India led with Rs 74.96 crore in compensation payments.

Bank of India paid Rs 20.38 crore.

Indian Bank paid Rs 16.16 crore.

Detailed Explanation:

Public sector banks’ compensation for frauds and electronic frauds increased over three-fold to Rs 140 crore in FY 2023-24, compared to Rs 42.70 crore in the previous fiscal year.

Top Compensators:

Union Bank of India led with Rs 74.96 crore in compensation payments.

Bank of India paid Rs 20.38 crore.

Indian Bank paid Rs 16.16 crore.

In FY 2023, the Union Bank of India was the highest compensator with Rs 12.18 crore, followed by the Central Bank of India with Rs 11.68 crore.

RBI Guidelines on Customer Liability: In July 2017, RBI issued guidelines to limit customer liability for unauthorized electronic transactions.

Decrease in Fraud Amount: According to RBI’s annual report, despite the increase in cases, the total amount involved in frauds decreased from Rs 45,358 crore in FY 2022 to Rs 13,930 crore in FY 2024.


9) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

DBS Bank India has announced the launch of ‘DBS Golden Circle’, a comprehensive priority banking program meticulously designed to cater to the unique needs of senior citizens.

This program offers a suite of exclusive benefits and services, making banking simpler and more rewarding for resident Indian citizens aged 60 years and above.

Senior citizens can earn up to 7% per annum on savings account balances between INR 4 lakhs and INR 5 lakhs.

Detailed Explanation:

DBS Bank India has announced the launch of ‘DBS Golden Circle’, a comprehensive priority banking program meticulously designed to cater to the unique needs of senior citizens.

This program offers a suite of exclusive benefits and services, making banking simpler and more rewarding for resident Indian citizens aged 60 years and above.

Senior citizens can earn up to 7% per annum on savings account balances between INR 4 lakhs and INR 5 lakhs.

Cyber Insurance Coverage:The program provides cyber insurance coverage of up to Rs 1,00,000 to enhance security.

30th Anniversary:The launch of ‘DBS Golden Circle’ coincides with DBS Bank India’s 30th anniversary, reflecting the bank’s ongoing commitment to the Indian market.


10) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Union Minister of Commerce & Industry, Shri Piyush Goyal, announced the introduction of the Diamond Imprest Licence during an interactive session at the 40th edition of the India International Jewellery Show (IIJS) 2024.

The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) was established by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India, in 1966.

Detailed Explanation:

Union Minister of Commerce & Industry, Shri Piyush Goyal, announced the introduction of the Diamond Imprest Licence during an interactive session at the 40th edition of the India International Jewellery Show (IIJS) 2024.

The event, organized by the Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC), is being held at the Bombay Exhibition Centre (BEC), NESCO, Goregaon, from August 9 to 13, 2024.

The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) was established by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India, in 1966.

It is one of several Export Promotion Councils (EPCs) created to enhance India’s export potential, especially as the nation began to make significant inroads into international markets post-independence.


11) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Union Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw introduced the Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024 in the Lok Sabha.

The Railway Board Act of 1905 created a separate railway organization, distinct from the Public Works Department.

Detailed Explanation:

Union Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw introduced the Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024 in the Lok Sabha.

The Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024 seeks to integrate provisions from the Indian Railway Board Act, 1905 into the Railways Act, 1989, providing statutory powers to the Railway Board.

The goal is to streamline and enhance the functioning and independence of the Railway Board by simplifying the legal framework.

The railways network was initially part of the Public Works Department before independence. As the network expanded, the Indian Railways Act of 1890 was established to facilitate the functioning of railway entities.

The Railway Board Act of 1905 created a separate railway organization, distinct from the Public Works Department.


12) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Home Ministry has issued a clarification regarding Schedule-IA of the Citizenship Amendment Rules, which specifies the documents applicants can use to prove their citizenship status from Bangladesh, Pakistan, or Afghanistan.

Detailed Explanation:

The Home Ministry has issued a clarification regarding Schedule-IA of the Citizenship Amendment Rules, which specifies the documents applicants can use to prove their citizenship status from Bangladesh, Pakistan, or Afghanistan.

This clarification was communicated to the Directorate of Census via a letter dated July 8.

The eighth entry in Schedule IA specifies that applicants must provide documents showing that their parents, grandparents, or great-grandparents were or are citizens of Afghanistan, Pakistan, or Bangladesh.


13) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Union Cabinet has approved the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U)-2, which aims to construct 1 crore houses for urban poor and middle-class families over the next five years.

Government Assistance: A total of Rs 2.30 lakh crore will be allocated under PMAY-U-2.

Detailed Explanation:

The Union Cabinet has approved the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U)-2, which aims to construct 1 crore houses for urban poor and middle-class families over the next five years.

The scheme also includes an extension of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G) for rural housing.

PMAY-U-2 Approval:

Government Assistance: A total of Rs 2.30 lakh crore will be allocated under PMAY-U-2.

Total Investment: Rs 10 lakh crore is projected for the scheme, aiming to address the housing needs of 1 crore families and enhance their quality of life.

Previous Achievements: Under the previous PMAY-U phase, 1.18 crore houses were sanctioned, with over 85.5 lakh houses already constructed and delivered.

Objective: To provide financial assistance for constructing 2 crore additional houses during FY 2024-25 to 2028-29.

Completion Target: The extension will complete the remaining 35 lakh houses from the previous phase, achieving the cumulative target of 2.95 crore houses.


14) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved eight railway projects with a total estimated cost of Rs 24,657 crore.

Detailed Explanation:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved eight railway projects with a total estimated cost of Rs 24,657 crore.

The projects span across 14 districts in seven states: Odisha, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Telangana, and West Bengal.

Gunupur-Therubali Line and Junagarh-Nabrangpur Line in Odisha

Malkangiri-Pandurangapuram Line connecting Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana

Buramara-Chakulia Rail Route in Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha

Bikramshila-Katareah Rail Route in Bihar

Jalna-Jalgaon Project in Maharashtra, which will enhance rail connectivity to the Ajanta Caves (a UNESCO World Heritage site)


15) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of India and NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of ISRO, signed an agreement to assist in launching the Nepal-built Munal satellite.

Munal is an Indigenous satellite developed in Nepal under the guidance of the Nepal Academy of Science and Technology (NAST).

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of India and NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of ISRO, signed an agreement to assist in launching the Nepal-built Munal satellite.

Munal is an Indigenous satellite developed in Nepal under the guidance of the Nepal Academy of Science and Technology (NAST).

Collaboration for Satellite Launch: The agreement between MEA and NSIL aims to support the launch of the Monal satellite, developed in Nepal.

Development and Purpose: The satellite is a product of collaboration between Nepalese students and AntarikchyaPratishan Nepal (APN), a Nepalese space startup. It is designed to build a vegetation density database of the Earth’s surface.


16) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

State-run GAIL has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Rajasthan Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam (RRVUNL) to explore the transfer of RRVUNL’s gas-based power plants into a proposed joint venture company (JVC).

Detailed Explanation:

State-run GAIL has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Rajasthan Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam (RRVUNL) to explore the transfer of RRVUNL’s gas-based power plants into a proposed joint venture company (JVC).

This development is crucial for enhancing power reliability during peak consumption periods.

Gas-Based Power Plants: The MoU aims to explore transferring RRVUNL’s gas-based power plants in Dholpur and Ramgarh to a JVC between GAIL and RRVUNL.

Renewable Energy Projects: The partnership will also involve setting up approximately 1,000 megawatts (MW) of solar and wind projects to provide round-the-clock (RTC) power.


17)
Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Appointments Committee of the Union Cabinet appointed senior bureaucrat T V Somanathan as the cabinet secretary of India.

He will remain in office for a tenure of two years, starting August 30, 2024.

He will succeed Rajiv Gauba, who is completing his five-year term in the position.

Detailed Explanation:

The Appointments Committee of the Union Cabinet appointed senior bureaucrat T V Somanathan as the cabinet secretary of India.

He will remain in office for a tenure of two years, starting August 30, 2024.

He will succeed Rajiv Gauba, who is completing his five-year term in the position.

Somanathan is a 1987-batch IAS officer of the Tamil Nadu cadre.

He is currently serving as the Finance Secretary of India.

Tuhin Kanta Pandey, a 1987-batch IAS officer from the Odisha cadre, is a likely candidate for the Finance Secretary position.

Pandey, currently Secretary of the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), has overseen significant transactions such as the sale of Air India and the public listing of LIC.


18) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Indian wrestler Aman Sehrawat showcased his potential by clinching the men’s 57kg freestyle bronze medal at the Paris Olympics.

Detailed Explanation:

Indian wrestler Aman Sehrawat showcased his potential by clinching the men’s 57kg freestyle bronze medal at the Paris Olympics.

His decisive 13-5 victory over Darian Toi Cruz in the bronze play-off injected hope into the Indian wrestling team, facing recent controversies.

The 21-year-old U-23 world champion was the only male wrestler from India to qualify for the Paris Games, and he rose to the occasion with a stellar performance at the Champ de Mars Arena.


19) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Bulgaria’s Karlos Nasar electrified the Paris Expo with a world-record-breaking performance to claim the men’s 89kg Olympic weightlifting title at the Paris Games.

Silver and Bronze Winners: Yeison Lopez of Colombia secured the silver medal with a total of 390kg, while Italy’s Antonino Pizzolato took bronze with 384kg.

Detailed Explanation:

Bulgaria’s Karlos Nasar electrified the Paris Expo with a world-record-breaking performance to claim the men’s 89kg Olympic weightlifting title at the Paris Games.

The 20-year-old lifter achieved a total lift of 404kg, surpassing his previous clean and jerk record with a final lift of 224kg, breaking the 223kg record set at the Qatar Grand Prix in Doha in 2023.

Added to his best snatch result of 180kg, Nasar shattered China’s Li Dajin’s total record of 396kg.

World Record Performance: Karlos Nasar set a new world record with a total lift of 404kg, including a 224kg clean and jerk, surpassing his previous record.

Silver and Bronze Winners: Yeison Lopez of Colombia secured the silver medal with a total of 390kg, while Italy’s Antonino Pizzolato took bronze with 384kg.


20) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone solidified her dominance in the 400-meter hurdles by breaking her world record with a time of 50.37 seconds, successfully defending her Olympic title.

Detailed Explanation:

Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone solidified her dominance in the 400-meter hurdles by breaking her world record with a time of 50.37 seconds, successfully defending her Olympic title.

Record Performance:

Time: McLaughlin-Levrone set a new world record with a time of 50.37 seconds.

Previous Record: She broke her own previous record of 50.65 seconds, set on June 30 at the U.S. Olympic Trials.

Race Results:

Gold: Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone (USA) – 50.37 seconds

Silver: Anna Cockrell (USA) – 51.87 seconds (personal best)

Bronze: Femke Bol (Netherlands) – 52.15 seconds


21) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Veteran Congress leader and former External Affairs Minister K Natwar Singh passed away at the age of 93 in Gurugram, near Delhi.

Born in 1931 in Bharatpur district, Rajasthan.

Detailed Explanation:

Veteran Congress leader and former External Affairs Minister K Natwar Singh passed away at the age of 93 in Gurugram, near Delhi.

Born in 1931 in Bharatpur district, Rajasthan.

He had served as the External Affairs Minister from 2004-05 as part of then Prime Minister Manmohan Singh’s Cabinet.

He also authored several books including, ‘The Legacy of Nehru: A Memorial Tribute’ and ‘My China Diary 1956-88′ and his autobiography titled ‘One Life is Not Enough’.

He was also awarded the Padma Vibhushan, the highest civilian award in India after he served as the head of the preparatory committee of the Non-Alignment Summit in New Delhi in 1983


22) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The 2024 theme is “Personifying prehistoric beauty, theological relevance, and environmental importance”.

It was officially launched on August 12, 2012.

The first World Elephant Day was held on 12 August 2012.

Detailed Explanation:

World Elephant Day is an international annual event on August 12, Conceived in 2011 by Canadian filmmakers Patrica Sims and Michael Clark of Canazwest pictures and SivapornDardarananda, Secretary General of Elephant Reintroduction Foundation in Thailand.

The 2024 theme is “Personifying prehistoric beauty, theological relevance, and environmental importance”.

It was officially launched on August 12, 2012.

The first World Elephant Day was held on 12 August 2012.

The film “RETURN TO THE FOREST” narrated by William Shatner was released on the inaugural of World Elephant Day.


23) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

International Youth Day is observed annually all over the world on August 12.

The theme for 2024 is ‘From Clicks to Progress: Youth Digital Pathways for Sustainable Development.’

United Nations passed a resolution for creating the International Youth Day in 1999 at the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).The first International Youth Day was observed on 12th August 2000.

Detailed Explanation:

International Youth Day is observed annually all over the world on August 12.

The theme for 2024 is ‘From Clicks to Progress: Youth Digital Pathways for Sustainable Development.’

United Nations passed a resolution for creating the International Youth Day in 1999 at the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).

With the recommendation of the World Conference of Ministers, this day came into existence and they declared August 12 as International Youth Day.

The first International Youth Day was observed on 12th August 2000.


24) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Cheque Truncation System is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque issued by a drawer at some point by the presenting bank en route to the paying bank branch.

Cheque Imaging : There are three images of each cheque that are taken in CTS – front Gray Scale, front Black and White and back Black and White.

Detailed Explanation:

Cheque Truncation System is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque issued by a drawer at some point by the presenting bank en-route to the paying bank branch.

CTS Implementation Locations : CTS has been implemented in New Delhi, Chennai, and Mumbai with effect from February 1, 2008, September 24, 2011, and April 27, 2013 respectively.

Cheque Imaging : There are three images of each cheque that are taken in CTS – front Gray Scale, front Black and White and back Black and White.

Customers should use image friendly coloured ink to write cheques to facilitate clear image of written information.


25) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

India clinched the bronze medal in men’s field hockey at the Paris 2024 Olympics, marking their second consecutive Olympic bronze.

Star Player: Harmanpreet Singh scored two key goals for India.

Historical Note: India’s field hockey team now has 12 Olympic medals, including eight golds, making them the most successful team in the sport’s history.

Detailed Explanation:

India clinched the bronze medal in men’s field hockey at the Paris 2024 Olympics, marking their second consecutive Olympic bronze.

Harmanpreet Singh played a pivotal role, scoring both goals in a tense 2-1 victory over Spain.

India’s men’s hockey team won the bronze medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics.

Star Player: Harmanpreet Singh scored two key goals for India.

Spain took an early lead with a penalty stroke.

Harmanpreet equalized just before halftime and then scored again in the third quarter.

Spain’s late attempts to score were unsuccessful.

Historical Note: India’s field hockey team now has 12 Olympic medals, including eight golds, making them the most successful team in the sport’s history.

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