Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 16th October 2024

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Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 of 16th October 2024. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

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1) The delisting proposal was recently contested by Manu Rishi Guptha and Quantum Mutual Fund, two ICICI Securities minority shareholders. Which organisation and ICICI Securities are the case’s principal responders?

(a) SIDBI

(b) SEBI

(d) IRDAI

(e) PFDRA

2) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has suggested creating the Reserve Bank – Climate Risk Information System (RB-CRIS), a data repository to track hazards associated with climate change. How many components will RB-CRIS have?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

(e) 5

3) Which industry is the target of the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) prohibition against banks and non-banking financial firms (NBFCs) imposing foreclosure fees or prepayment penalties on variable rate term loans?

(a) Payments bank

(b) Small Finance bank

(d) Micro and Small Enterprises

(e) Mutual funds

4) Which Payments Bank has received a license from the Association of Mutual Funds in India (Amfi) to distribute mutual funds?

(a) Airtel

(b) Jio

(d) Fino

(e) NSDL

5) For the agricultural year 2021–2022, the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) carried out the second All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS). How many states and Union Territories were included in the survey overall?

(a) 29

(b) 30

(d) 28

(e) 31

6) Which nation has allowed young Indians between the ages of 18 and 30 to work and travel for up to a year with the introduction of a new First Work and Holiday visa (subclass 462) for Indian citizens?

(a) Singapore

(b) Maldives

(d) Indonesia

(e) Australia

7) As concerns about pollution grow, the government will crack down on false claims about air purifiers. At the moment, BIS has a standard on IS17531 of which year for portable electric air purifiers, although compliance is not required?

(a) 2020

(b) 2019

(d) 2022

(e) 2023

8) The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is working on a nationwide power distribution plan as part of India’s effort to use renewable energy sources to fulfill the country’s growing electricity demand. How many trillions of dollars is the investment potential represented by the CEA’s plan?

(a) ₹7 trillion

(b) ₹8 trillion

(d) ₹6 trillion

(e) ₹10 trillion

9) In response to a congressional decision, the government of Nicaragua, headed by Vice President Rosario Murillo, formally announced the suspension of diplomatic ties with which nation?

(a) Iran

(b) Israel

(d) Bangladesh

(e) Myanmar

10) Which administration introduced Gramodaya, a new initiative to guarantee that social programs are received by residents of districts afflicted by Left Wing Extremism (LWE)?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Odisha

(d) Maharashtra

(e) Karnataka

11) With effect from January 1, 2025, the Delhi government has outlawed the production, distribution, and storage of any sort of firecracker, including those sold online. With an AQI of 220, which category was Delhi’s air quality assigned to?

(a) Moderate

(b) Poor

(d) Severe

(e) Satisfactory

12) What percentage of Reliance Industries’ net profit for the second quarter of FY25 decreased, coming in at Rs 19,323 crore, in line with experts’ predictions?

(a) 1%

(b) 2%

(d) 4%

(e) 5%

13) The telecom provider, BSNL, plans to deploy its in-house 4G technology employing one lakh base stations by May 2024.Which IT firm collaborates with their C-DOT to create this technology?

(a) TCS

(b) HCL

(d) Infosys

(e) Accenture

14) Adobe has expanded its range of creative generative AI models to encompass video creation with the release of Firefly Video Model, the company’s first AI video generator. How many seconds does it take for current tools to create an output, but Adobe is working on a “turbo mode” to speed up this process?

(a) 15sec

(b) 30sec

(d) 60sec

(e) 90sec

15) During the current fiscal year, from April to August, India’s imports of coal increased by what percentage, to 121.1 million tonnes (MT), based on statistics from the B2B e-commerce platform mjunction?

(a) 11.2%

(b) 11.4%

(d) 11.8%

(e) 11.6%

16) The FY25 asset monetisation objective has been raised by NITI Aayog to ₹1.9 trillion, an increase of ₹23,000 crore. When was the NMP launched by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, with a four-year aim of ₹6 trillion in asset monetisation?

(a) September 2021

(b) August 2021

(d) November 2021

(e) May 2021

17) According to the recent report, India is about to sign a $3.3 billion (Rs 28,000 crore) defense contract with which nation for 31 MQ-9B Predator drones?

(a) USA

(b) UK

(d) Switzerland

(e) France

18) Recently (Oct’24),Surgeon Vice Admiral Kavita Sahai, SM, VSM took over as Director General Medical Services (Navy). In which year did she get the Vishisht Seva Medal?

(a) 2016

(b) 2015

(d) 2018

(e) 2019

19) Who is responsible for extra duties as the CEO of the GeM public procurement portal?

(a) Srinivas

(b) Mahesh

(d) Hariharan

(e) Rahul

20) As per the recent report, the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is now the Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) in India to be classified as a _____________________ after being promoted to Maharatna level.

(a) 12th

(b) 10th

(d) 14th

(e) 15th

21) On October 14, 24 at L&T, Kattupalli, the first ship of the two Multi-Purpose Vessel projects, which are being built by the shipyard for the Indian Navy, was launched. How does the ship’s name, “Samarthak,” mean?

(a) Supporter

(b) Promoter

(d) Booster

(e) Champion

22) Which edition of India-Sweden Innovation Day (ISID), which focused on bilateral collaboration between India and Sweden in innovation and technology, was addressed by Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, Dr. Jitendra Singh?

(a) 10

(b) 11

(d) 13

(e) 15

23) When is World Anaesthesia Day 2024 observed?

(a) October 14

(b) October 15

(d) October 17

(e) October 13

24) Every year on October 16, 2024, the world observes World Food Day. In what year was World Food Day established by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), a specialized agency of the United Nations?

(a) 1942

(b) 1944

(d) 1946

(e) 1948

25) Where was the Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Odisha

(d) Maharashtra

(e) Karnataka

Answers :

1) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Quantum Mutual Fund and Manu Rishi Guptha, minority shareholders of ICICI Securities, challenged the delisting plan.

ICICI Securities and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) are key respondents in the case.

Detailed Explanation:

Quantum Mutual Fund and Manu Rishi Guptha, minority shareholders of ICICI Securities, challenged the delisting plan.

ICICI Securities and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) are key respondents in the case.

Legal Proceedings: The case is being heard by the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) after the Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) approved ICICI Securities’ delisting plan.

Minority shareholders appealed the NCLT order, which dismissed their objections.

Allegations Against SEBI:Quantum Mutual Fund alleged that SEBI was “hand in glove” with ICICI Securities in connection with the delisting.

A SEBI letter dated June 23, 2023, granted ICICI Bank an exemption to delist ICICI Securities, even though the listed holding company and subsidiary were not in the same line of business (Regulation 37 of SEBI’s Delisting Regulations).

2) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed setting up a data repository to monitor climate-related risks, known as the Reserve Bank – Climate Risk Information System (RB-CRIS).

Structure: RB-CRIS will have two components:

Web-based directory: Lists data sources (meteorological, geospatial, etc.) and will be publicly accessible on the RBI website.

Data portal: Contains processed datasets in standardised formats, available to regulated entities in a phased manner.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed setting up a data repository to monitor climate-related risks, known as the Reserve Bank – Climate Risk Information System (RB-CRIS).

It will address issues like varied data sources, differing formats, and inconsistencies in frequency and units.

Structure: RB-CRIS will have two components:

Web-based directory: Lists data sources (meteorological, geospatial, etc.) and will be publicly accessible on the RBI website.

Data portal: Contains processed datasets in standardised formats, available to regulated entities in a phased manner.

Draft Guidelines for Climate Risk Disclosures: On February 28, 2024, RBI issued draft guidelines for a Disclosure Framework on Climate-Related Financial Risks.

3) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has barred banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) from levying foreclosure charges or pre-payment penalties on floating rate term loans sanctioned to Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs).

Scope of Guidelines: This extends the existing prohibition on pre-payment penalties, which was previously applicable only to individual borrowers (except for business purposes), to include MSE loans.

Detailed Explanation:

Scope of Guidelines: This extends the existing prohibition on pre-payment penalties, which was previously applicable only to individual borrowers (except for business purposes), to include MSE loans.

RBI will issue a draft circular for public consultation on this matter.

The move aligns with RBI’s efforts to safeguard consumer interests and reduce unfair charges on MSEs.

This policy change may negatively affect the income of banks and NBFCs, as it could lead to an increase in loan pre-payments and balance transfers among MSE borrowers.

4) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Jio Payments Bank, a subsidiary of Jio Financial Services, has obtained a mutual fund distribution license from the Association of Mutual Funds in India (Amfi)

The bank has secured a Category 1 Execution-only Platform (EOP) license, which allows it to distribute the direct plan of mutual fund (MF) schemes.

Detailed Explanation:

Jio Payments Bank, a subsidiary of Jio Financial Services, has obtained a mutual fund distribution license from the Association of Mutual Funds in India (Amfi)

The bank has secured a Category 1 Execution-only Platform (EOP) license, which allows it to distribute the direct plan of mutual fund (MF) schemes.

Transaction Charges: Category 1 EOPs, like Jio Payments Bank, can receive transaction charges from fund houses, with a fee cap set at ₹2 per transaction.

Currently, there are 15 Category 1 EOPs registered with Amfi.

Market Competition: The direct plan distribution business is primarily dominated by stock brokers such as Groww and Zerodha.

5) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) conducted the second All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS) for the agricultural year 2021-22.

The survey included all 28 states and the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Detailed Explanation:

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) conducted the second All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS) for the agricultural year 2021-22.

Financial Inclusion Importance:The survey highlights the essential role of financial inclusion in economic development, following an inaugural survey conducted for the agricultural year 2016-17 with results released in August 2018.

The survey included all 28 states and the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Income Growth:The average monthly income of rural households rose by 57.6% from ₹8,059 in 2016-17 to ₹12,698 in 2021-22, indicating a nominal compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 9.5%.

The average annual nominal GDP growth during the same period was 9%.

6) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Australia has introduced a new First Work and Holiday visa (subclass 462) for Indian citizens, enabling young Indians aged 18 to 30 to work and holiday in Australia for up to one year.

This initiative, part of the Australia-India Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (AI-ECTA), strengthens the economic and cultural ties between the two nations.

Detailed Explanation:

This initiative, part of the Australia-India Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (AI-ECTA), strengthens the economic and cultural ties between the two nations.

Eligibility:

Indian citizens aged 18 to 30 are eligible to apply.

A total of 1,000 visas will be allocated annually to successful applicants.

Visa Ballot Process:

The registration period for the visa ballot is from October 1 to October 31, 2024.

Random selection will occur from October 14, 2024, to April 30, 2025, with selected applicants receiving email notifications.

The selection process is fully automated.

Visa Features:

The visa allows working or studying short-term while spending a year in Australia.

The visa cost is $650, with an additional $25 registration fee for participating in the ballot.

7) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

As air pollution worsens, especially in the NCR region, and more people purchase air purifiers, Consumer Affairs Minister Pralhad Joshi raised concerns about misleading claims made by some manufacturers.

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) will increase market surveillance on air purifiers to ensure the quality of these products.

Currently, BIS has a standard for portable electric air purifiers (IS17531 of 2021), but compliance is not mandatory.

Detailed Explanation:

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) will increase market surveillance on air purifiers to ensure the quality of these products.

The BIS has already scaled up surveillance by 10 times in the last five years, from 15,000 to over 1.5 lakh checks annually, and aims to intensify inspections on air purifiers.

The government is considering bringing air purifiers under mandatory standards or a Quality Control Order (QCO) to ensure the authenticity of claims made by manufacturers.

Currently, BIS has a standard for portable electric air purifiers (IS17531 of 2021), but compliance is not mandatory.

Union Consumer Affairs Secretary Nidhi Khare emphasized the importance of market surveillance in protecting consumers.

The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) can take class-action against companies found violating standards.

8) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is developing a national scheme for power distribution as part of India’s push to meet rising electricity demand through renewable energy.

The CEA’s plan represents an investment opportunity worth ₹9 trillion.

Detailed Explanation:

The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is developing a national scheme for power distribution as part of India’s push to meet rising electricity demand through renewable energy.

Union Power Minister Manohar Lal announced this initiative, which aligns with India’s broader goal of establishing 600 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2032.

India’s peak power demand is projected to reach 708 GW by 2047, nearly three times the current demand.

The CEA aims to create 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030, increasing to 600 GW by 2032.

The CEA’s plan represents an investment opportunity worth ₹9 trillion.

For the first time, the CEA is working on a National Electricity Plan to streamline power distribution, which has traditionally been managed at the state level.

9) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Nicaragua’s government, led by Vice President Rosario Murillo, has officially declared the suspension of diplomatic relations with Israel following a congressional resolution.

Detailed Explanation:

Nicaragua’s government, led by Vice President Rosario Murillo, has officially declared the suspension of diplomatic relations with Israel following a congressional resolution.

The announcement occurs amidst increasing international scrutiny of Israel due to its military actions in the West Asia region, particularly in Gaza and Lebanon.

The diplomatic break is largely symbolic, as Israel does not maintain a resident ambassador in Nicaragua, indicating that bilateral relations are minimal.

This is not the first instance of Nicaragua severing ties with Israel; previous breaks occurred in 1982 and 2010 during President Daniel Ortega’s administration.

Nicaragua’s decision aligns with similar actions taken by other Latin American countries, such as Colombia and Bolivia, distancing themselves from Israel due to its military operations.

10) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Odisha government has launched Gramodaya, a new scheme to ensure that welfare programmes reach people living in the Left Wing Extremism (LWE)-affected districts.

The scheme will encompass 583 villages across 10 LWE-affected districts in Odisha.

Detailed Explanation:

The Odisha government has launched Gramodaya, a new scheme to ensure that welfare programmes reach people living in the Left Wing Extremism (LWE)-affected districts.

The scheme will encompass 583 villages across 10 LWE-affected districts in Odisha.

The notification for the Gramodaya initiative was issued by the Panchayati Raj and Drinking Water Department shortly after Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi announced it during a meeting of chief ministers from LWE-affected states, chaired by Union Home Minister Amit Shah in New Delhi.

The initiative will be implemented in the districts of Bargarh, Balangir, Boudh, Kalahandi, Kandhamal, Koraput, Malkangiri, Nabarangpur, Nuapada and Rayagada.

11) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Delhi government has imposed a complete ban on the manufacturing, storage, selling, and bursting of all kinds of firecrackers, including online sales, effective until January 1, 2025.

Air Quality Index (AQI) on October 9, 2024:On October 9, 2024, Delhi’s air quality was recorded in the “poor” category, with an AQI reading of 220.

Detailed Explanation:

The Delhi government has imposed a complete ban on the manufacturing, storage, selling, and bursting of all kinds of firecrackers, including online sales, effective until January 1, 2025.

The Delhi police have been tasked with enforcing the ban strictly and are required to submit daily action-taken reports to a designated committee.

Part of Winter Action Plan 2024:The firecracker ban is one of the measures under the Delhi government’s Winter Action Plan 2024 aimed at combating air pollution.

Air Quality Index (AQI) on October 9, 2024:On October 9, 2024, Delhi’s air quality was recorded in the “poor” category, with an AQI reading of 220.

12) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Reliance Industries reported a 3% drop in net profit for Q2 FY25, reaching Rs 19,323 crore, which was in line with analysts’ expectations.

Revenue remained stable at approximately Rs 2.4 lakh crore, driven by strength in the oil-to-chemicals (O2C), oil & gas, and fast-growing digital services (Jio) businesses.

Detailed Explanation:

Reliance Industries reported a 3% drop in net profit for Q2 FY25, reaching Rs 19,323 crore, which was in line with analysts’ expectations.

Revenue remained stable at approximately Rs 2.4 lakh crore, driven by strength in the oil-to-chemicals (O2C), oil & gas, and fast-growing digital services (Jio) businesses.

Operating profit fell by 3.1% to Rs 41,809 crore, reflecting underlying business performance.

Expenses increased slightly by 1.4% to nearly Rs 2.2 lakh crore.

Operating profit from the O2C business dropped 24% to Rs 12,413 crore, largely due to a sharp decline in product margins.

Fuel cracks, which refers to breaking crude oil into components like gasoline and jet fuel, dropped by nearly 50% amid muted global demand and well-supplied markets.

13) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

BSNL, the state-run telecom company, will complete the rollout of its indigenously developed 4G technology by May 2024 using 1 lakh base stations.

The technology is developed by a consortium of C-DOT (state-run) and TCS (domestic IT company).

Detailed Explanation:

BSNL, the state-run telecom company, will complete the rollout of its indigenously developed 4G technology by May 2024 using 1 lakh base stations.

The technology is developed by a consortium of C-DOT (state-run) and TCS (domestic IT company).

After the completion of the 4G rollout, BSNL will switch to 5G technology by June 2025.

India will become the sixth country in the world to transition to 5G with its own technology.

Telecom Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia highlighted that while India followed the world in 4G and marched with the world in 5G, it aims to lead the world in 6G technology.

India has achieved the fastest 5G rollout globally, with 4.5 lakh towers installed in 22 months, providing 80% coverage to the population

14) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Adobe has introduced its first AI video generator, Firefly Video Model, expanding its family of creative generative AI models to include video production.

Current tools take around 90 seconds to produce outputs, but Adobe is developing a “turbo mode” to accelerate this process.

Detailed Explanation:

Adobe has introduced its first AI video generator, Firefly Video Model, expanding its family of creative generative AI models to include video production.

Announced in a limited public beta, this model is designed to be commercially safe, addressing growing concerns about copyright compliance in AI-generated content.

Firefly Video joins existing generative models like the Image Model, Vector Model, and Design Model within Adobe’s ecosystem.

Since its launch, Firefly has been integrated into popular Adobe applications including Photoshop, Illustrator, Substance 3D, and more, supporting workflows across Creative Cloud apps.

It supports text prompts in over 100 languages, allowing global users to create content that is safe for commercial use.

Current tools take around 90 seconds to produce outputs, but Adobe is developing a “turbo mode” to accelerate this process.

15) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

India’s coal imports surged by 11.4% to 121.1 million tonnes (MT) during the April-August period of the current fiscal year compared to 108.7 MT in the same period last year, according to data from mjunction, a B2B e-commerce platform.

Detailed Explanation:

For the April-August period, non-coking coal imports increased to 78.68 MT from 68.58 MT in the same period last year.

Imports in August were at 4.53 MT, slightly down from 4.62 MT a year ago.

During April-August, coking coal imports remained almost flat at 24.79 MT, compared to 24.85 MT in the previous fiscal year.

16) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The NITI Aayog has revised the asset monetisation target for FY25, increasing it by ₹23,000 crore to ₹1.9 trillion.

This adjustment is part of efforts to reach the ₹6 trillion goal set under the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP), which aims to recycle capital from public assets for infrastructure investment.

Detailed Explanation:

The NITI Aayog has revised the asset monetisation target for FY25, increasing it by ₹23,000 crore to ₹1.9 trillion.

Launched by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in August 2021, the NMP targets ₹6 trillion in asset monetisation over four years.

In the first three years, ₹3.9 trillion was achieved, slightly short of the ₹4.3 trillion target. The revised target for FY25 is ₹1.9 trillion, meaning the government will miss the overall goal by around ₹20,000 crore.

The NMP is aligned with the ₹111 trillion National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), which focuses on infrastructure financing through capital recycling.

17) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

India is set to sign a major $3.3 billion (Rs 28,000 crore) defence deal with the United States for 31 MQ-9B Predator drones.

This acquisition is part of India’s growing defence partnership with the US, which has secured over $25 billion in Indian defence contracts in less than two decades.

The MQ-9B Predator is a high-altitude, long-endurance drone designed for intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance (ISR) missions and precision strikes.

Detailed Explanation:

India is set to sign a major $3.3 billion (Rs 28,000 crore) defence deal with the United States for 31 MQ-9B Predator drones.

This acquisition is part of India’s growing defence partnership with the US, which has secured over $25 billion in Indian defence contracts in less than two decades.

The MQ-9B Predator is a high-altitude, long-endurance drone designed for intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance (ISR) missions and precision strikes.

India will deploy these drones for strategic ISR missions in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), where China is expanding its naval influence.

The drones are equipped with Hellfire missiles, GBU-39B precision-guided bombs, advanced navigation systems, and sensor suites.

The deal includes 15 Sea Guardians for the Navy and 8 Sky Guardians each for the Army and Air Force.

The drones will be delivered over a period of four to six years.

A separate contract with General Atomics will establish a Maintenance, Repair, and Overhaul (MRO) facility in India, with 34% of components to be sourced from Indian companies.

18) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Surgeon Vice Admiral Kavita Sahai, SM, VSM assumed charge as Director General Medical Services (Navy).

In recognition for her distinguished Service, she has been awarded the Sena Medal in 2024 and Vishisht Seva Medal in 2018 and has been Commended by the Chief of the Army Staff twice in 2008 & 2012 and the GOC-in-C (WC) in 2010.

Detailed Explanation:

Surgeon Vice Admiral Kavita Sahai, SM, VSM assumed charge as Director General Medical Services (Navy).

Kavita Sahai was commissioned in the Army Medical Corps on 30 Dec 1986.

She is the first woman officer to be elected as Col Commandant of Army Medical Corps.

She has a special interest in Medical Education and was awarded the prestigious Foundation for Advancement of International Medical Education and Research (FAIMER) Fellowship for advancement of Med Education from Philadelphia, USA in 2013-14.

19) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

L. Satya Srinivas, a 1991-batch Indian Revenue Service (IRS) officer (Customs & Indirect Taxes), has been appointed as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) on an additional charge basis.

Detailed Explanation:

He is currently serving as the Additional Secretary in the Department of Commerce, Government of India.

Srinivas is India’s Chief Negotiator for the India-EU and India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations.

He oversees the Special Economic Zones and the Trade Intelligence & Analytics divisions within the Department of Commerce.

He has taken over the role of CEO following the appointment of the previous CEO, P K Singh, as Secretary in the Ministry of Renewable Energy.

20) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has been upgraded to Maharatna status, becoming the 14th Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) to receive this classification in India.

Detailed Explanation:

Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has been upgraded to Maharatna status, becoming the 14th Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) to receive this classification in India.

The upgrade was approved by the Finance Minister, following recommendations from:

Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) led by the Finance Secretary.

Apex Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary.

HAL gains greater operational autonomy, higher investment capabilities, and strategic flexibility.

The company can now invest up to ₹5,000 crore or 15% of its net worth in a single project without needing government approval.

21) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The first ship of the two Multi-Purpose Vessel projects, being built by Larsen & Toubro Limited (L&T), Shipyard for the Indian Navy, was launched on 14 Oct 24 at L&T, Kattupalli.

The ship has been named ‘ Samarthak ’ which means ‘ Supporter’ and is synonymous with the muti-dimensional role envisaged from the platform.

Detailed Explanation:

The first ship of the two Multi-Purpose Vessel projects, being built by Larsen & Toubro Limited (L&T), Shipyard for the Indian Navy, was launched on 14 Oct 24 at L&T, Kattupalli.

The ship has been named ‘ Samarthak ’ which means ‘ Supporter’ and is synonymous with the muti-dimensional role envisaged from the platform.

The contract for two Multi-Purpose Vessels was signed between the Ministry of Defence and L&T Shipyard on 25 March 2022.

The ship was launched by Mrs. Shashi Tripathi, President of NWWA (Navy Wives Welfare Association). The ceremony was presided over by Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi, Chief of the Naval Staff.

22) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, Dr. Jitendra Singh addressed the 11th India-Sweden Innovation Day (ISID), focusing on bilateral collaboration between India and Sweden in innovation and technology.

Theme for 2024: The theme for the 2024 ISID is “Accelerating Green Growth for Inclusive Transition.”

Detailed Explanation:

Theme for 2024: The theme for the 2024 ISID is “Accelerating Green Growth for Inclusive Transition.”

India’s Innovation Rank (GII 2024): India ranks 1st among the 10 economies in Central and Southern Asia and 39th globally among 133 economies in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2024.

Sweden’s Innovation Rank (GII 2024): Sweden is a global leader in innovation, ranking 2nd among 39 European economies and globally in the GII 2024.

23) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

World Anaesthesia Day 2024 is observed on the 16th of October 2024.

World Anaesthesia Day is observed on October 16 in remembrance of W.T.G. Morton, who made the first successful official demonstration of ether as an anaesthetic on this date 173 years ago.

Detailed Explanation:

World Anaesthesia Day 2024 is observed on the 16th of October 2024.

World Anaesthesia Day is observed on October 16 in remembrance of W.T.G. Morton, who made the first successful official demonstration of ether as an anaesthetic on this date 173 years ago.

This event ushered in the practice of anesthesiology.

Since 1903, unique occasions have been planned to commemorate this momentous day.

Given in an operating room at Massachusetts General Hospital, it is regarded as one of the pivotal moments in medical history.

24) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

World Food Day 2024 is observed annually on the 16th of October 2024.

The World Food Day 2024 theme is “Right to Foods for a Better Life and a Better Future,”

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), a specialised body of the United Nations, created World Food Day in 1945.

Detailed Explanation:

World Food Day 2024 is observed annually on the 16th of October 2024.

The World Food Day 2024 theme is “Right to Foods for a Better Life and a Better Future,”

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), a specialised body of the United Nations, created World Food Day in 1945.

However, it would take another 34 years until the 20th FAO conference in November 1979, when it was declared a global holiday.

Following this, 150 nations continued to commemorate the day once it was given official UN recognition.

Since 2014, the day’s popularity has been exploited to advance the causes of world hunger relief and eradicate poverty in developing countries.

25) Answer: B

About Odisha :

Governor : Raghubar Das

Chief Minister : Mohan Charan Majhi

Capital : Bhubaneswar

National Park : Simlipal National Park, Bhitarkanika National Park

Wildlife Sanctuaries : Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary, Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary, Hadagarh Wildlife Sanctuary

This post was last modified on October 17, 2024 1:57 pm

1 month ago

Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 16th October 2024

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