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Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 of 28th & 29th July 2024. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.
1) According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) index, which tracks the adoption of online transactions, digital payments in the country increased by what percentage year on year as of March 31, 2024?
(a) 12.2%
(b) 12.4%
(c) 12.6%
(d) 12.8%
(e) 12.5%
2) As per report, Canara Bank intends to open how many additional branches in the current fiscal year to attract low-cost deposits (Current Account and Savings Account – CASA)?
(a) 150
(b) 200
(c) 250
(d) 300
(e) 350
3) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) disclosed how many firms were selected for the test phase of the regulatory sandbox’s theme-neutral fifth cohort, which was announced in October 2023?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 7
(e) 8
4) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced draft recommendations aimed at improving banks’ liquidity resilience in the face of rising technology use. What additional percentage run-off factor must banks apply to retail deposits enabled with online and mobile banking?
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
(e) 7%
5) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has published a Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework to strengthen weak urban cooperative banks (UCBs), which will take effect on April 1, 2025. Which of the following pairs is wrong according to the UCB category?
(a) Tier 1: UCBs with deposits up to Rs 100 crore.
(b) Tier 2: UCBs with deposits above Rs 100 crore and less than Rs 1,000 crore.
(c) Tier 3: UCBs with deposits above Rs 1,000 crore and less than Rs 10,000 crore.
(d) Tier 4: UCBs with deposits above Rs 10,000 crore.
(e) All the above are correct
6) For failing to comply with regulations, Visa Worldwide, Ola Financial Services, and Manappuram Finance have been hit with fines by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Which Section of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 as well as the terms of Section 30 applied to the penalties?
(a) Section 29
(b) Section 33
(c) Section 31
(d) Section 28
(e) Section 32
7) India plans to construct 12 new industrial towns in various states to encourage local manufacturing. Two cities will be created in ______________, one in ______________.
(a) Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha
(b) Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat
(c) Jharkhand, Assam
(d) Andhra Pradesh, Bihar
(e) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
8) In 2023, India came in second place to the US among WTO members for initiating and enforcing anti-dumping measures. How many anti-dumping laws affect 418 items in India overall?
(a) 131
(b) 132
(c) 133
(d) 135
(e) 139
9) The newly formed ______-India Technology Security Initiative was unveiled by British Foreign Secretary David Lammy. The National Security Advisors (NSAs) of both nations approved the idea.
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) Hong Kong
(d) Switzerland
(e) UK
10) For all in-state watercraft, including houseboats, the Keralan government has instituted QR code registration. According to the new Inland Vessels Act of what year, Kerala is the first state in India to have such an online system?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2019
(d) 2022
(e) 2023
11) In 2047, India’s GDP is projected to reach $___________ trillion, with a per capita income of $18,000 per year, according to the strategy paper for the “Vision for Viksit Bharat in 2047”.
(a) $30 trillion
(b) $10 trillion
(c) $20 trillion
(d) $40 trillion
(e) $50 trillion
12) The “One Nation, One Rate” approach is something that the gold jewelry industry is advocating. In the most recent Union Budget, Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman lowered import levies on gold and silver from 15% to what percentage?
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 7%
(d) 9%
(e) 8%
13) The Aditya Birla Group introduced Indriya, an internal jewelry brand. How much crores is a sizable investment supporting the venture?
(a) Rs.1000crore
(b) Rs.2000crore
(c) Rs.3000crore
(d) Rs.4000crore
(e) Rs.5000crore
14) The International Film Festival of India (IFFI) has named Shekhar Kapur as its festival director. Which city hosted the first edition of the IFFI from January 24 to February 1, 1952?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kochi
(d) Chennai
(e) Jaipur
15) As per the report, CH Vijayashankar, a former minister for Karnataka, was recently named governor of which state ?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Mizoram
(c) Nagaland
(d) Meghalaya
(e) Jharkhand
16) Eluned Morgan, the leader of the governing Welsh Labour Party, will become the first female First Minister of Wales. What is Wales’s currency?
(a) Dollar
(b) Pound Sterling
(c) Dirham
(d) Franc
(e) Peso
17) NITI Aayog’s SDG India Index quantifies and monitors the advancement made by Indian states and union territories (UTs) in accomplishing the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) established by the United Nations. With a combined score of 79 points, which state together with Uttarakhand stood out as the best performing states?
(a) Bihar
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Kerala
(e) Madhya Pradesh
18) An agreement on cultural property was struck by the United States and India with the purpose of strengthening collaboration to safeguard both nations’ cultural heritage. India is currently among the _________ nations with whom the United States has bilateral agreements pertaining to cultural property.
(a) 25
(b) 28
(c) 27
(d) 29
(e) 23
19) At the Olympics, France won its first gold medal in men’s rugby sevens. Which nation’s six-man team was defeated by South Africa to win the bronze?
(a) Germany
(b) Poland
(c) Australia
(d) Norway
(e) Denmark
20) Ariarne Titmus of Australia won the 400-meter freestyle event, defending her Olympic title. In the men’s 400m freestyle, Lukas Maertens from which nation won his first Olympic gold medal in 3 minutes and 41.78 seconds?
(a) South Korea
(b) Australia
(c) Germany
(d) Italy
(e) France
21) Father Francis D’Britto, a Catholic priest and Marathi Bible translator, passed away. In which year did he obtain the Sahitya Akademi Award?
(a) 2012
(b) 2014
(c) 2015
(d) 2010
(e) 2016
22) When was World Nature Conservation Day held and recognized throughout the world as a conservation awareness campaign?
(a) July 30
(b) July 26
(c) July 27
(d) July 28
(e) July 29
23) When was International Tiger Day commemorated and recognized internationally as an awareness program?
(a) July 30
(b) July 26
(c) July 27
(d) July 28
(e) July 29
24) The NITI Aayog has released the SDG India Index 2023-24. Which number, Goal (Life Below Water), is removed from the composite score since it only applies to the nine coastal states?
(a) Goal 13
(b) Goal 11
(c) Goal 12
(d) Goal 14
(e) Goal 15
25) Who will be the current Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry?
(a) Lakshman Prasad Acharya
(b) K Kailashnathan
(c) CP Radhakrishnan
(d) CH Vijayashankar
(e) Om Prakash Mathur
Answers :
1) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI’s) index that measures the adoption of online transactions, Digital payments across the country registered a 12.6% on-year rise as of March 31, 2024.
RBI’s Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) stood at 445.5 at the end of March 2024 compared to 418.77 in September 2023 and 395.57 in March 2023.
Detailed Explanation:
According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI’s) index that measures the adoption of online transactions, Digital payments across the country registered a 12.6% on-year rise as of March 31, 2024.
RBI’s Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) stood at 445.5 at the end of March 2024 compared to 418.77 in September 2023 and 395.57 in March 2023.
The index series since its inception is as under:
| Period | RBI – DPI Index |
| March 2018 (Base) | 100 |
| March 2019 | 153.47 |
| September 2019 | 173.49 |
| March 2020 | 207.84 |
| September 2020 | 217.74 |
| March 2021 | 270.59 |
| September 2021 | 304.06 |
| March 2022 | 349.30 |
| September 2022 | 377.46 |
| March 2023 | 395.57 |
| September 2023 | 418.77
|
| March 2024 | 445.50 |
2) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Canara Bank plans to open 250 new branches in the current financial year to mobilize low-cost deposits (Current Account and Savings Account – CASA).
The bank opened 200 branches last year.
Share of CASA deposits decreased from 33% in June 2022 to 30.98% in June 2023.
Financial Performance:Total Deposits Growth: Total deposits increased by 11.97% year-on-year (Y-o-Y) to Rs 13.35 trillion as of June 2024.
Detailed Explanation:
Canara Bank plans to open 250 new branches in the current financial year to mobilize low-cost deposits (Current Account and Savings Account – CASA).
The bank opened 200 branches last year.
Share of CASA deposits decreased from 33% in June 2022 to 30.98% in June 2023.
Financial Performance:Total Deposits Growth: Total deposits increased by 11.97% year-on-year (Y-o-Y) to Rs 13.35 trillion as of June 2024.
Post-Amalgamation Strategy:Branch Closures: Following the merger with Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank closed 1,300 branches to benefit from synergies.
Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR):RBI Proposal: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed tightening norms for the liquidity coverage ratio (LCR).
Bank’s LCR Policy: Canara Bank’s internal policy is to maintain an LCR of 110%, while the RBI mandates 100%.
Current LCR: The bank’s LCR stands at 140%.
Projected Impact: The proposed RBI rule may reduce the LCR to 129-130%.
3) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced that 5 entities were selected for the test phase of the regulatory sandbox’s theme-neutral fifth cohort that it had announced in October, 2023.
The RBI received 22 applications for this cohort of the regulatory sandbox.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced that 5 entities were selected for the test phase of the regulatory sandbox’s theme-neutral fifth cohort that it had announced in October, 2023.
The RBI received 22 applications for this cohort of the regulatory sandbox.
Selected 5 Entities:
Connectingdot Consultancy
Epifi Technologies
Finagg Technologies
Indian Banks’ Digital Infrastructure Company (IBDIC)
Signzy Technologies
Services Offered by Selected Entities :
Categorisation of risks in loan portfolios.
Digital opening of accounts for Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) through video Know Your Customer (KYC).
MSME financing.
Unassisted video KYC.
4) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released draft guidelines aimed at bolstering the liquidity resilience of banks amid the increased usage of technology.
Run-Off Factor for Retail Deposits: Banks must assign an additional 5% run-off factor for retail deposits enabled with internet and mobile banking (IMB).
Stable Retail Deposits with IMB: 10% run-off factor.
Less Stable Deposits with IMB: 15% run-off factor.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released draft guidelines aimed at bolstering the liquidity resilience of banks amid the increased usage of technology.
Run-Off Factor for Retail Deposits: Banks must assign an additional 5% run-off factor for retail deposits enabled with internet and mobile banking (IMB).
Stable Retail Deposits with IMB: 10% run-off factor.
Less Stable Deposits with IMB: 15% run-off factor.
This regulation enhances the short-term resilience of banks to potential liquidity disruptions, ensuring they possess sufficient HQLAs to withstand a 30-day acute stress scenario.
Effective Date: These guidelines will come into effect on April 1, 2025.
5) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework to improve weak Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs), effective from April 1, 2025.
The PCA framework will replace the existing Supervisory Action Framework (SAF), which was last revised on January 6, 2020.
Urban Co-operative Banks have been categorised into four tiers.
Categorization of UCBs:
Tier 1: UCBs with deposits up to Rs 100 crore.
Tier 2: UCBs with deposits above Rs 100 crore and less than Rs 1,000 crore.
Tier 3: UCBs with deposits above Rs 1,000 crore and less than Rs 10,000 crore.
Tier 4: UCBs with deposits above Rs 10,000 crore.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework to improve weak Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs), effective from April 1, 2025.
The PCA framework will replace the existing Supervisory Action Framework (SAF), which was last revised on January 6, 2020.
Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) up to 250 basis points below the required CAR.
Net Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) above 6.0% but below 9.0%.
Incurring losses during two consecutive years.
The breach of any risk threshold may result in invocation of PCA.
Applicability: The PCA framework will apply to UCBs with deposits above Rs 100 crore.
Urban Co-operative Banks have been categorised into four tiers.
Categorization of UCBs:
Tier 1: UCBs with deposits up to Rs 100 crore.
Tier 2: UCBs with deposits above Rs 100 crore and less than Rs 1,000 crore.
Tier 3: UCBs with deposits above Rs 1,000 crore and less than Rs 10,000 crore.
Tier 4: UCBs with deposits above Rs 10,000 crore.
6) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed penalties on payment system operators Visa Worldwide, Ola Financial Services and Manappuram Finance for deficiencies in regulatory compliance.
Visa Worldwide Private Limited: Rs 2.4 crore.
Manappuram Finance Limited: Rs 41.5 lakh.
Ola Financial Services: Rs 87.55 lakh in two cases.
Exercise of Regulatory Powers:The penalties were imposed under the provisions of Section 30 and Section 31 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed penalties on payment system operators Visa Worldwide, Ola Financial Services and Manappuram Finance for deficiencies in regulatory compliance.
Visa Worldwide Private Limited: Rs 2.4 crore.
Manappuram Finance Limited: Rs 41.5 lakh.
Ola Financial Services: Rs 87.55 lakh in two cases.
Non-Compliance with KYC Directions:Manappuram Finance and Ola Financial Services were penalized for non-compliance with certain provisions of the Know Your Customer (KYC) directions issued by the RBI.
Exercise of Regulatory Powers:The penalties were imposed under the provisions of Section 30 and Section 31 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
The actions were based on deficiencies in regulatory compliance and do not pronounce upon the validity of any transaction or agreement entered into by the entities with their customers.
7) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
India is set to establish 12 new industrial cities across various states to boost domestic manufacturing.
DPIIT Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh announced that these cities will follow the model of Greater Noida and Dholera.
Two cities will be developed in Andhra Pradesh and one in Bihar.
Detailed Explanation:
India is set to establish 12 new industrial cities across various states to boost domestic manufacturing.
DPIIT Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh announced that these cities will follow the model of Greater Noida and Dholera.
Two cities will be developed in Andhra Pradesh and one in Bihar.
Current Industrial Cities:
Eight industrial cities are currently in various stages of implementation.
Trunk infrastructure completed in four cities: Dholera (Gujarat), Auric (Maharashtra), Vikram Udyogpuri (Madhya Pradesh), and Krishnapatnam (Andhra Pradesh).
Land allotment for industries underway in these locations.
Infrastructure Development:
Government’s special purpose vehicle (SPV) is constructing essential infrastructure (roads, water, power) for the remaining four cities.
The new cities will feature ‘plug and play’ facilities with pre-approved environmental clearances.
Approval and Land Allocation:
DPIIT will soon seek Union Cabinet approval for the new cities.
State governments have already allocated the necessary land.
DPIIT to approve equity for the SPV.
8) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
India ranked second after the US in initiating and imposing anti-dumping duties among WTO members in 2023.
India initiated 45 anti-dumping investigations and imposed duties in 14 cases.
The US initiated 64 anti-dumping investigations and imposed duties in 14 cases.
In total, India has 133 anti-dumping measures impacting 418 products.
In 2022, India was the top initiator with 29 anti-dumping investigations.
Detailed Explanation:
India ranked second after the US in initiating and imposing anti-dumping duties among WTO members in 2023.
India initiated 45 anti-dumping investigations and imposed duties in 14 cases.
The US initiated 64 anti-dumping investigations and imposed duties in 14 cases.
In total, India has 133 anti-dumping measures impacting 418 products.
In 2022, India was the top initiator with 29 anti-dumping investigations.
India faced 11 anti-dumping investigations and had duties imposed in 8 cases in 2023.
Overall, India has faced anti-dumping actions in 103 cases covering 217 products.
Anti-dumping duties are designed to protect local companies from foreign suppliers selling goods at below-normal value.
India initiated 3 countervailing investigations and imposed duties in 3 cases in 2023.
Overall, India has imposed countervailing duties in 17 cases covering 28 products.
As an exporter, India faced 4 countervailing duty investigations and had duties imposed in 3 cases.
9) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
British Foreign Secretary David Lammy announced the new United Kingdom (UK)-India Technology Security Initiative.
The announcement took place during Lammy’s first visit to India, where he met with Prime Minister Narendra Modi and other senior leaders in New Delhi.
The initiative aims to boost economic growth and deepen collaboration between the UK and India.
Detailed Explanation:
British Foreign Secretary David Lammy announced the new United Kingdom (UK)-India Technology Security Initiative.
The announcement took place during Lammy’s first visit to India, where he met with Prime Minister Narendra Modi and other senior leaders in New Delhi.
The initiative aims to boost economic growth and deepen collaboration between the UK and India.
It is expected to enhance security and cooperation in critical and emerging technologies.
Agreements and Negotiations : The initiative was agreed upon by the National Security Advisors (NSAs) of both countries.
Key Sectors of Collaboration:The initiative focuses on several priority sectors, including:
Telecoms
Critical minerals
Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Quantum technologies
Health and biotechnology
Advanced materials
Semiconductors
Funding and Research:A new GBP 7-million funding call for Future Telecoms research was announced.
10) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The Kerala government has introduced QR code registration for all inland vessels, including houseboats, operating in the state.
An electronic portal has been established by the Kerala Maritime Board to facilitate the registration and survey of inland mechanised vessels.
First State Initiative:Kerala is the first state in India to develop such an online system based on the new Inland Vessels Act, 2021.
Detailed Explanation:
The Kerala government has introduced QR code registration for all inland vessels, including houseboats, operating in the state.
An electronic portal has been established by the Kerala Maritime Board to facilitate the registration and survey of inland mechanised vessels.
From August 1, 2024, registration and surveys of all mechanised inland water vessels in Kerala will only be possible through this portal.
Aim : To ensure the safety of all vessels based on the new Inland Vessels Act, 2021, and to eliminate illegal activities in the sector.
QR Code Benefits:Registered vessels will receive a registration number with a QR code, which passengers and inspection officials can scan to access vessel information, including passenger capacity.
First State Initiative:Kerala is the first state in India to develop such an online system based on the new Inland Vessels Act, 2021.
Transfer of Existing Registrations:The process of transferring details of already registered vessels to the new portal is progressing rapidly.
11) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
India aims to become a $30 trillion economy by 2047, with a per capita income of $18,000 annually, according to the approach paper for the “Vision for Viksit Bharat in 2047”.
Detailed Explanation:
India aims to become a $30 trillion economy by 2047, with a per capita income of $18,000 annually, according to the approach paper for the “Vision for Viksit Bharat in 2047”.
Current Economic Status:
GDP: $3.3 trillion
Per Capita Income: $2,392 per annum
Growth Requirements:
GDP Growth: Ninefold increase from the current level
Per Capita Income Growth: Eightfold increase from the current level
Necessary Growth Rate:
Sustained economic growth of 7-10% annually for the next 20-30 years
12) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The gold jewellery industry is pushing for a ‘One Nation, One Rate’ policy.
The policy will start with a unified gold rate for Eastern India in August.
The Union Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman, reduced import duties on gold and silver from 15% to 6% in the recent Union Budget.
Detailed Explanation:
The gold jewellery industry is pushing for a ‘One Nation, One Rate’ policy.
The policy will start with a unified gold rate for Eastern India in August.
Samar Kr. De, President of the Swarna Silpa Bachao Committee, confirms widespread interest among stakeholders.
The Union Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman, reduced import duties on gold and silver from 15% to 6% in the recent Union Budget.
The industry expects the duty cut to curb illegal gold imports, which are estimated to be 100 tonnes out of 950 tonnes of total imports.
Industry players are concerned about potential changes to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) on gold.
The GJC has requested the GST Council to reduce the GST rate on jewellery from the current 3% to 1%.
13) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
Aditya Birla Group launched its in-house jewellery brand, Indriya.
The group aims to become one of India’s top three jewellery retailers within five years.
The venture is backed by a substantial investment of Rs 5,000 crore.
Initial launch includes four stores in Delhi, Indore, and Jaipur, with plans to expand to over 10 cities within six months.
Detailed Explanation:
Aditya Birla Group launched its in-house jewellery brand, Indriya.
The group aims to become one of India’s top three jewellery retailers within five years.
The venture is backed by a substantial investment of Rs 5,000 crore.
Initial launch includes four stores in Delhi, Indore, and Jaipur, with plans to expand to over 10 cities within six months.
Stores will be large, measuring over 7000 sq ft, 30-35% larger than the average national brand stores.
The Rs 6.7 lakh crore Indian jewellery market is highly competitive.
Titan Company, with its Tanishq brand, currently leads with over Rs 40,000 crore in yearly sales.
Other strong regional players like Kalyan Jewellers, Malabar Jewellers, and PC Jewellers are expanding into pan-India brands, intensifying the competition.
14) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Veteran filmmaker Shekhar Kapur, known for films such as “Mr India”, “Bandit Queen” and “Elizabeth”, has been appointed festival director for the International Film Festival of India (IFFI).
Mr. Kapur will head the festival, held annually in Goa, for the 55th and 56th editions, as announced by the Information and Broadcasting Ministry.
The inaugural edition took place in Mumbai from January 24 to February 1, 1952.
Detailed Explanation:
Veteran filmmaker Shekhar Kapur, known for films such as “Mr India”, “Bandit Queen” and “Elizabeth”, has been appointed festival director for the International Film Festival of India (IFFI).
Mr. Kapur will head the festival, held annually in Goa, for the 55th and 56th editions, as announced by the Information and Broadcasting Ministry.
Establishment and History: The International Film Festival of India (IFFI) was first organized by the Films Division of the Government of India.
The inaugural edition took place in Mumbai from January 24 to February 1, 1952.
The festival was held under the patronage of India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.
IFFI 2023:In 2023, IFFI screened approximately 250 films from 78 countries.
The festival hosted 23 masterclasses and in-conversation events.
Film Bazaar:The Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest content market, runs alongside the festival, organized by India’s National Film Development Corporation (NFDC), and will take place from November 20-24, 2024.
15) Answer: D
| Name | Previous Position | New Appointment | ||
| Haribhau Kisanrao Bagde | Former Maharashtra Assembly Speaker | Governor of Rajasthan | ||
| Jishnu Dev Varma | Former Tripura Deputy Chief Minister | Governor of Telangana | ||
| Om Prakash Mathur | Former Rajya Sabha MP | Governor of Sikkim | ||
| Santosh Kumar Gangwar | Former Union Minister | Governor of Jharkhand | ||
| Ramen Deka | Former Lok Sabha MP from Assam | Governor of Chhattisgarh | ||
| CH Vijayashankar | Former Karnataka Minister | Governor of Meghalaya | ||
| CP Radhakrishnan | Presently Governor of Jharkhand | Governor of Maharashtra | ||
| Gulab Chand Kataria | Governor of Assam |
| ||
| Lakshman Prasad Acharya | Governor of Sikkim | Governor of Assam and additional charge as Governor of Manipur | ||
| K Kailashnathan | Former IAS officer | Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry |
16) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Wales is set to get its first female First Minister after Eluned Morgan was chosen to lead the governing Welsh Labour Party.
She is currently the Welsh Health Minister.
About Wales :
Capital : Cardiff
Currency : Pound sterling
Wales, which has a population of about three million, is one of four parts of the United Kingdom, along with England, Scotland, and Northern Ireland.
Detailed Explanation:
Wales is set to get its first female First Minister after Eluned Morgan was chosen to lead the governing Welsh Labour Party.
Ms Morgan will take charge following a confirmation vote in Wales’ parliament, the Senedd.
Ms Morgan succeeds First Minister Vaughan Gething, who stepped down last week as party leader amid acrimony and a campaign donation scandal.
She is currently the Welsh Health Minister.
The First Minister of Wales is the leader of the Welsh Government and the keeper of the Welsh Seal.
About Wales :
Capital : Cardiff
Currency : Pound sterling
Wales, which has a population of about three million, is one of four parts of the United Kingdom, along with England, Scotland, and Northern Ireland.
17) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The SDG India Index by NITI Aayog measures and tracks the progress of Indian states and union territories (UTs) towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set by the United Nations.
Assessment Criteria: The Index evaluates the performance of states and UTs across 16 SDGs using 113 indicators aligned with national priorities
Kerala and Uttarakhand emerged as the best-performing states, each scoring 79 points.
Bihar scored the lowest with 57 points, followed by Jharkhand at 62 points.
Detailed Explanation:
The SDG India Index by NITI Aayog measures and tracks the progress of Indian states and union territories (UTs) towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set by the United Nations.
Assessment Criteria: The Index evaluates the performance of states and UTs across 16 SDGs using 113 indicators aligned with national priorities.
Scoring:
Range: Scores range from 0-100, with higher scores indicating greater progress.
Categories:
Aspirant: 0–49
Performer: 50–64
Front-Runner: 65–99
Achiever: 100
Exclusion: Goal 14 (Life Below Water) is excluded from the composite score as it pertains solely to the nine coastal states.
Overall Progress:
India’s overall SDG score improved to 71 in 2023-24 from 66 in 2020-21 and 57 in 2018.
All states have shown improvement in their overall scores.
Targeted government interventions in poverty reduction, economic growth, and climate action drive progress.
Top Performers:
Kerala and Uttarakhand emerged as the best-performing states, each scoring 79 points.
Lowest Performer:
Bihar scored the lowest with 57 points, followed by Jharkhand at 62 points.
Front-Runner States:
32 states and UTs are in the front-runner category.
10 new entrants include Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, and Uttar Pradesh.
18) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
India and the U.S. signed a cultural property agreement that aims to enhance cooperation to protect the cultural heritage of both countries.
India is now one of the 29 countries with which the U.S. has bilateral cultural property agreements.
Detailed Explanation:
India and the U.S. signed a cultural property agreement that aims to enhance cooperation to protect the cultural heritage of both countries.
The agreement aims to prevent the illegal trade of cultural property.
It simplifies the process of returning looted and stolen antiquities to their country of origin.
Background and Commitment:
India is now one of the 29 countries with which the U.S. has bilateral cultural property agreements.
The U.S.-India Cultural Property Agreement was negotiated under U.S. law implementing the 1970 UNESCO Convention.
UNESCO Convention:
The 1970 UNESCO Convention aims to prohibit and prevent the illicit import, export, and transfer of ownership of cultural property.
19) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
France claimed its first gold medal in men’s rugby sevens at the Olympics.
The victory was a stunning 28-7 win over double-defending champion Fiji at the Stade de France.
South Africa beat six-man Australia 26-19 to claim the bronze medal.
Detailed Explanation:
France claimed its first gold medal in men’s rugby sevens at the Olympics.
The victory was a stunning 28-7 win over double-defending champion Fiji at the Stade de France.
Antoine Dupont played a crucial role, in leading France to victory.
Dupont took a sabbatical from the national XV team to join the sevens project.
South Africa beat six-man Australia 26-19 to claim the bronze medal.
Shaun Williams scored a last-play try to secure the victory.
South Africa qualified for Paris as the final qualifier through the repechage.
20) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:
Ariarne Titmus of Australia won the 400-meter freestyle, defending her Olympic title.
The race was one of the most highly anticipated events of the Paris Games.
Ariarne Titmus (“The Terminator”): Led the race from start to finish, winning in 3 minutes and 57.49 seconds.
Katie Ledecky (USA): Defeated by Titmus, Ledecky remains at six individual gold medals, the most for any female swimmer in Olympic history.
Summer McIntosh (Canada): Provided the stiffest challenge to Titmus.
Men’s 400m Freestyle:
Lukas Maertens (Germany): Won his first Olympic gold in the men’s 400m freestyle with a time of 3 minutes and 41.78 seconds.
Elijah Winnington (Australia): Silver medallist.
Kim Woo-min (South Korea): Bronze medallist.
21) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Vasai-based Catholic priest Father Francis D’Britto, writer and environmentalist, who translated the Bible into Marathi, passed away at the age of 81 in Vasai in Palghar district.
The Catholic priest was the first to get the award that was constituted in 2007.
His literary prowess was further recognised when he received the Maharashtra Government’s literary award for best translation in 2013, followed by the Sahitya Akademi award in April 2014.
Detailed Explanation:
Vasai-based Catholic priest Father Francis D’Britto, writer and environmentalist, who translated the Bible into Marathi, passed away at the age of 81 in Vasai in Palghar district.
Francis D’Britto was born on 4 December 1942.
He was the author of the Subodh Bible, a translation of the Bible to Marathi..
On 22 September 2019, D’Britto was unanimously elected as the president of 93rd Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Sahitya Sammelan (literary meet), to be held in Osmanabad on 10 January 2020.
D’Britto was awarded the Dnyanoba-Tukaram Puraskar for his literary work.
The Catholic priest was the first to get the award that was constituted in 2007.
His literary prowess was further recognised when he received the Maharashtra Government’s literary award for best translation in 2013, followed by the Sahitya Akademi award in April 2014.
22) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
On July 28th, World Nature Conservation Day 2024 is celebrated and observed all over the world as an awareness program to conserve Nature.
On October 5, 1948, In Fontainebleau, a small town in France, the International Union for Conservation of Nature was established.
Detailed Explanation:
On July 28th, World Nature Conservation Day 2024 is celebrated and observed all over the world as an awareness program to conserve Nature.
In 2018, The E.U. completely restricted the outdoor use of three neonicotinoids (a type of pesticide).
On October 5, 1948, In Fontainebleau, a small town in France, the International Union for Conservation of Nature was established.
23) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
International Tiger Day is celebrated and observed worldwide as an awareness program on July 29th.
In 2017, IUCN recognized the continental tiger and the Sunda island tiger as tiger subspecies.
Detailed Explanation:
International Tiger Day is celebrated and observed worldwide as an awareness program on July 29th.
In 1973, India launched Project Tiger to revive the tiger population.
In 2010, 13 tiger range countries committed to TX2 to double wild tiger numbers by 2024.
In 2017, IUCN recognized the continental tiger and the Sunda island tiger as tiger subspecies.
In 2024, The WWF aims to double the number of wild tigers in 2024.
24) Answer: D
The SDG India Index by NITI Aayog measures and tracks the progress of Indian states and union territories (UTs) towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set by the United Nations.
The Index evaluates the performance of states and UTs across 16 SDGs using 113 indicators aligned with national priorities.
Scoring:
Range: Scores range from 0-100, with higher scores indicating greater progress.
Categories:
Aspirant: 0–49
Performer: 50–64
Front-Runner: 65–99
Achiever: 100
Exclusion: Goal 14 (Life Below Water) is excluded from the composite score as it pertains solely to the nine coastal states.
25) Answer: B
| Name | Previous Position | New Appointment | ||
| Haribhau Kisanrao Bagde | Former Maharashtra Assembly Speaker | Governor of Rajasthan | ||
| Jishnu Dev Varma | Former Tripura Deputy Chief Minister | Governor of Telangana | ||
| Om Prakash Mathur | Former Rajya Sabha MP | Governor of Sikkim | ||
| Santosh Kumar Gangwar | Former Union Minister | Governor of Jharkhand | ||
| Ramen Deka | Former Lok Sabha MP from Assam | Governor of Chhattisgarh | ||
| CH Vijayashankar | Former Karnataka Minister | Governor of Meghalaya | ||
| CP Radhakrishnan | Presently Governor of Jharkhand | Governor of Maharashtra | ||
| Gulab Chand Kataria | Governor of Assam |
| ||
| Lakshman Prasad Acharya | Governor of Sikkim | Governor of Assam and additional charge as Governor of Manipur | ||
| K Kailashnathan | Former IAS officer | Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry |
This post was last modified on July 31, 2024 11:44 am